Empowerment will enhance organizational effectiveness under all the following conditions EXCEPT

CHAP 1.
All organizational successes and failures result directly from
a)stakeholder management
b)comprehensive selection and placement.
c)supplier relationships
d)the behaviors of many people.
e)the dynamics of the reward system of the organization.

the behaviors of many people.

All of these are important reasons for understanding organizational behavior EXCEPT:
a)Most people are born and educated in organizations.
b)Government organizations regulate many of our activities.
c)Most adults spend the better part of their lives working in organizations.
d)Organizational behavior offers specific perspectives on the human side of management.
e)Most people do not acquire most of their material possessions from organizations

Most people do not acquire most of their material possessions from organizations

Which of the following is NOT a resource that organizations use in the pursuit of goals and objectives?
a)Human
b)Financial
c)Physical
d)Intangible
e)Informational

Intangible

Martin evaluates performance, implements reward systems, and verifys inventory levels. These are all examples of which managerial function?
a)Leading
b)Decision making
c)Organizing
d)Planning
e)Controlling

Controlling

Which of the following is an example of something a manager performing the role of distrubance handler might do?
A)Speak at a Chamber of Commerce meeting
B)Hire a new Human Resource Manager for the company
C)Resolve a dispute between employees
D)Develop a new strategic five-year plan for the company
E)Design a new customer response system for the company

Resolve a dispute between employees

RaSean is known for her ability to quickly develop solutions to problems. This demonstrates ReSean's strong
a)conceptual skills.
b)time management skills.
c)diagnostic skills.
d)interpersonal skills.
e)technical skills.

diagnostic skills.

Mary's ability to identify the products that consumers want to buy illustrates her _____ skills.
a)diagnostic
b)conceptual
c)technical
d)interpersonal
e)decision-making

conceptual

Contemporary organizational behavior is both ____ in focus and ____ in nature.
a)dynamic; prescriptive
b)stable; consistent
c)interdisciplinary; descriptive
d)cross-cultural; proscriptive
e)interactional; behavioral

interdisciplinary; descriptive

Under the systems perspective, a system is defined as
a)an interrelated set of elements that functions as a whole.
b)a procedure for fair and impartial performance appraisals.
c)a collection of independent organizations.
d)the central technology of the organization.
e)the ideal process for completing a particular job.

an interrelated set of elements that functions as a whole.

Which of the following perspectives argues that universal rules, solutions, guidelines, predictions, and principles are feasible when applied to organizations?
a)The universal perspective
b)Behavioral organization theory
c)The systems perspective
d)The interactional perspective
e)The contingency perspective

The universal perspective

Some outcomes can be studied at the individual, group and organization levels. Which of the following is generally assessed at both the individual and organizational levels?
a)Absenteeism
b)Financial performance
c)Survival
d)Norms
e)Cohesiveness

Absenteeism

Leading is the process of
a)designing jobs, grouping jobs into units, and establishing patterns of authority between jobs and units.

b)determining the organization's desired future position and deciding how best to get there.

c)motivating the organization's members to work together toward the organization's goals.

d)monitoring and correcting the actions of the organization and its members to keep them directed toward their goals.

e)moving organizational resources with the ultimate goal of attaining organizational goals efficiently and effectively

motivating the organization's members to work together toward the organization's goals.

CHAP 2.
Understanding and addressing the environment of a business has traditionally been the purview of
a)supervisors.
b)stockholders.
c)workers and line managers.
d)stakeholders.
e)top managers.

top managers.

All of the following are considered cultural values EXCEPT
a)individualism/collectivism.
b)uncertainty avoidance.
c)power distance.
d)masculinity.
e)open-mindedness

open-mindedness

Which of these best describes Hofstede's masculinity dimension?
a)It gives employees a sense of autonomy.
b)It is the extent to which workers focus on the future.
c)It enhances organizational effectiveness.
d)It emphasizes assertiveness.
e)It is the extent to which workers prefer clear situations.

It emphasizes assertiveness.

Which of the following is not an example of a primary dimension of diversity?
a)Age
b)Aender
c)Sexual orientation
d)Mental abilities
e)Religious beliefs

Religious beliefs

Which of the following workforce groups has increased the least in size between 2000 and 2010?
a)12 to 16 year olds
b)16 to 24 year olds
c)25 to 54 year olds
d)50 to 54 year olds
e)55 and older

25 to 54 year olds

Not paying attention to diversity can be costly to organizations in all of the following ways EXCEPT:
a)it can decrease turnover.
b)it can lower productivity.
c)it can block minority involvement in decision making.
d)it can increase tensions among workers.
e)it can increase lawsuits.

it can decrease turnover.

Intel makes computer chips that are installed in various computers. Intel is an example of a(n)
a)manufacturing organization.
b)biotechnology firm.
c)information technology firm.
d)service organization.
e)hybrid organization.

manufacturing organization

Which of the following statements about information technology is NOT true?
a)It has resulted in leaner organizations.
b)Provides more flexible operations.
c)Technology increases the financial position of a company.
d)Technology has increased collaboration among employees.
e)Technology has improved management processes.

Technology increases the financial position of a company.

The duty of the board of directors of a public corporation is to
a)audit the company's financial statements for accuracy.
b)recommend new products and services.
c)control the day-to-day operations of the firm.
d)protect the company from harsh overseas competition and lower labor costs.
e)ensure decisions by senior managers are in the best interests of the shareholders.

ensure decisions by senior managers are in the best interests of the shareholders.

One way to address privacy concerns on the Internet is to
a)keep all information collected confidential.
b)publicly display any information collected by the company.
c)post a privacy policy on the company's web site.
d)avoid collecting any private information.
e)share collected information only with respectable firms.

post a privacy policy on the company's web site.

A knowledge worker's career path may run parallel to a management career path. The benefit of this path for the worker is
a)the chance to take on substantial management responsibilities.
b)more frequent training in management tasks.
c)less highly specialized training.
d)compensation that is equivalent to that available to management.
e)freedom from specialized technical work.

compensation that is equivalent to that available to management.

Examples of organizational functions to outsource include all of the following EXCEPT
a)The organization's payroll function.
b)The organization's human resource training program.
c)The organization's corporate governance program.
d)The organization's facility maintenance program.
e)The organization's food service facility.

The organization's corporate governance program.

CHAP. 3
A psychological contract is
a)a description of the intellectual work the employee will be required to complete on the job.
b)a legally binding agreement between the employer and the worker.
c)a person's overall expectations regarding the employment arrangement.
d)a written document outlining what the employee will be paid.
e)a ideal employment contract developed by industrial psychologists.

a person's overall expectations regarding the employment arrangement.

The extent to which the contributions made by an individual match the inducements offered by the organization is referred to as
a)a complementary contract.
b)employment alignment.
c)person-job fit.
d)workplace balance.
e)job security.

person-job fit.

Agreeableness includes being all of these EXCEPT:
a)gentle.
b)cooperative.
c)understanding.
d)forgiving.
e)responsible.

responsible.

People with a high level of ____ are willing to listen to new ideas and to change their own ideas, beliefs, and attitudes in response to new information.
a)agreeableness
b)conscientiousness
c)openness
d)extraversion
e)negative emotionality

openness

Emotional intelligence includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a)self-aware
b)manage emotions
c)locus of control
d)self-motivation
e)social skills

locus of control

Andrew believes that he was promoted and given a raise based upon his hard work on the job. Andrew has
a)self-efficacy.
b)an internal locus of control.
c)emotional intelligence.
d)high self-esteem.
e)an external locus of control.

an internal locus of control.

Which of these is behavior directed at gaining power and controlling the behavior of others?
a)Authoritarianism
b)Positive affectivity
c)Machiavellianism
d)Selective perception
e)Neuroticism

Machiavellianism

After working in a fast-food restaurant for three years to pay for your college tuition, you vowed never to work in a restaurant again. But after graduation the only job offer you receive is a managerial job at a local restaurant. Your acceptance of this job may result in ____ dissonance.
a)attitudinal
b)behavioral
c)cognitive
d)affective
e)intentional

cognitive

Gloria generally is pessimistic and usually sees things in a negative light. Gloria has a relatively high degree of
a)self-criticism.
b)negative affectivity.
c)locus of control.
d)Machiavellianism.
e)self-efficacy.

negative affectivity

When a large-scale layoff is announced in Bill's company, all the workers including Bill begin to complain. According to attribution theory, we would evaluate Bill's behavior as exhibiting
a)high consistency.
b)high distinctiveness.
c)low consistency.
d)low consensus.
e)high consensus.

high consensus.

Which of these refers to the number of goals on which a person focuses?
a)Agreeableness
b)Conscientiousness
c)Openness
d)Extraversion
e)Negative emotionality

Conscientiousness

CHAP. 4
The equation P = M + A + E states that performance is a function of
a)motivation, activity, and equity.
b)management, assets, and equity.
c)motivation, ability, and environment.
d)motion, activity, and equilibrium.
e)mastery, acquisition, and expertise

motivation, ability, and environment.

The scientific management view of motivation includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a)employees are motivated by money.
b)work is inherently unpleasant.
c)employees want to feel useful and important.
d)advocates incentive pay systems.
e)the nature of the work is not important

employees want to feel useful and important.

According to Maslow, if a previously satisfied lower-level need becomes deficient,
a)the individual returns to the level just below the deficient level.
b)the individual returns to the lowest level that is now deficient.
c)the individual becomes demotivated.
d)the individual advances a level.
e)the individual begins again at the bottom of the hierarchy.

the individual returns to the lowest level that is now deficient.

Ramone has satisfied his basic needs and has many friends. He is now trying to learn new skills and advance his career. According to Alderfer, Ramone's activities are explained by which component of ERG theory?
a)Satisfaction-progression
b)Frustration-regression
c)Importance-satisfaction
d)Satisfaction-regression
e)Frustration-progression

Satisfaction-progression

According to Herzberg's dual-structure theory, motivation factors were often cited as the primary causes of
a)job enrichment and motivation.
b)satisfaction and motivation.
c)dissatisfaction and lack of motivation.
d)loyalty and commitment.
e)higher performance and pay.

satisfaction and motivation.

Why do high-need achievers tend not to make good top managers?
a)Top managers are required to have too much formal education.
b)High-need achievers tend to make decisions that are too risky.
c)Top managers seldom receive immediate feedback.
d)High-need achievers delegate too many responsibilities.
e)Top managers have too high a need for affiliation.

Top managers seldom receive immediate feedback.

According to equity theory, people
a)have the motivation to improve their standard of living.
b)have the motivation to develop satisfying relationships.
c)want to be treated fairly.
d)want everything to be equal.
e)compare what they get from a job with what they want from a job.

want to be treated fairly.

According to the equity theory, inputs include all of the following EXCEPT
a)education.
b)experience.
c)effort.
d)loyalty.
e)money.

money

____ theory assumes that people are motivated to work toward a goal if they want that goal and think they can achieve it.
a)Perception
b)Equity
c)Attribution
d)Reinforcement
e)Expectancy

Expectancy

Porter and Lawler's extension of the expectancy model argues that
a)only extrinsic rewards are important.
b)reward equity replaces valence.
c)ability, traits, and role perceptions are removed from the
original model.
d)rewards are less important than originally thought.
e)high levels of performance may lead to satisfaction.

high levels of performance may lead to satisfaction.

Which two types of reinforcement are generally accepted as means for increasing the frequency of desired behavior?
a)Positive reinforcement and extinction
b)Avoidance and punishment
c)Avoidance and extinction
d)Extinction and punishment
e)Positive reinforcement and avoidance

Positive reinforcement and avoidance

Which type of reinforcement schedule is effective at motivating desirable behaviors, especially in the early stages of learning?
a)Variable interval
b)Fixed ratio
c)Fixed interval
d)Variable ratio
e)Continuous

Continuous

CHAP. 5
Which of these was the first widespread model of how individual work should be designed?
a)Job enrichment
b)Job rotation
c)Job enlargement
d)Motivational design
e)Job specialization

Job specialization

The problems encountered when implementing job rotation in the workplace include all of the following EXCEPT:
a)few companies rely on it as motivational tool.
b)it increases flexibility in transferring workers to new jobs.
c)it creates short-lived increases in workers' interest.
d)it reduces efficiency.
e)it maintains narrowly defined and routine work.

it increases flexibility in transferring workers to new jobs.

Job enlargement involves the process of horizontal job loading, meaning that
a)the employee is assigned more tasks to perform.
b)the jobs are broken into small, component parts.
c)each employee is given a specialized task to perform.
d)the employee is assigned less monotonous and routine tasks.
e)the employee is assigned tasks with more responsibility.

the employee is assigned more tasks to perform.

Which of the following best describes the current view of job enrichment?
a)Job enrichment continues to be a highly successful job design.
b)Nearly all Fortune 500 companies use some form of job enrichment program.
c)Job enrichment has been proven to increase performance, but at the cost of lower satisfaction.
d)Job enrichment has been proven to increase satisfaction, but at the cost of lower performance.
e)Job enrichment has recently fallen into disfavor among managers.

Job enrichment has recently fallen into disfavor among managers

In the job characteristics theory, which of the following is NOT a factor presumed to cause the emergence of psychological states?
a)Task identity
b)Experienced responsibility
c)Task significance
d)Feedback
e)Autonomy

Experienced responsibility

All of the following statements about the key outcomes expected to result from the psychological states detailed in the job characteristics theory are true EXCEPT:
a)low absenteeism and turnover.
b)high satisfaction with work.
c)high-quality work performance.
d)high profits for stockholders.
e)high internal work motivation.

high profits for stockholders.

Participation occurs when employees
a)work together in teams.
b)have a voice in decisions about their own work.
c)work closely with a mentor or supervisor.
d)join a labor union or other employee association.
e)become fully vested in a benefits program.

have a voice in decisions about their own work.

Organizations may benefit from allowing employee participation in all of the following areas EXCEPT:
a)what material to use.
b)what tools to use.
c)work schedules.
d)product quality.
e)corporate investment decisions.

corporate investment decisions.

Empowerment will enhance organizational effectiveness under all the following conditions EXCEPT:
a)sincere efforts to spread power and autonomy to lower levels.
b)commitment to maintain participation and empowerment.
c)systematic efforts to empower workers.
d)renewed concentration of authority in the hands of top managers.
e)increased commitment to training.

renewed concentration of authority in the hands of top managers.

Which of the following is an alternative work arrangement where an employee is given more control over the times worked on a typical workday?
a)Flextime
b)Variable work schedules
c)Compressed work week
d)Job sharing
e)Telecommuting

Flextime

When a construction worker decides to work additional hours on a typical workday so that he can have a three-day weekend, he is likely taking advantage of a ____ program.
a)shortened workweek.
b)telecommuting.
c)flextime.
d)compressed workweek.
e)job sharing.

compressed workweek

The benefits of job sharing include all of the following EXCEPT:
a)a way to entice more workers to the organization.
b)there are cost benefits to the organization.
c)the organization does not have to offer benefits.
d)organizations are concerned about worker safety.
e)the organization can tap into a wider array of skills

organizations are concerned about worker safety.

CHAP.6
Which of these describes self-efficacy? It refers to the extent to which an individual
a)is willing to expend effort in order to attain a goal.
b)believes he or she can accomplish goals even if he or
she failed to do so in the past.
c)is personally interested in reaching a goal.
d)accepts a goal as his or her own.
e)believes that a goal is worthwhile.

believes he or she can accomplish goals even if he or she failed to do so in the past.

Goal specificity has been shown to be consistently related to
a)job satisfaction.
b)company image.
c)performance.
d)social responsibility.
e)ethical behavior.

performance.

Goal ____ is defined as the extent to which a person is interested in reaching a goal.
a)importance
b)commitment
c)acceptance
d)attachment
e)specificity

commitment

Goal-setting theory has been tested in a variety of settings. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the findings of these studies?
a)Goal setting is an important way for managers to convert motivation into improved job performance.

b)Goal difficulty and goal specificity are closely related to performance.

c)Little is currently known about how individuals accept and become committed to goals.

d)Goal setting may focus too much on the short-term at the expense of long-term issues.

e)Goals set for organizations as a whole are typically more effective than goals set for individual employees.

Goals set for organizations as a whole are typically more effective than goals set for individual employees.

Information from performance measurement is commonly used as a basis for all of the following functions EXCEPT
a)to guide recruiting, training, and development programs.
b)to forecast future human resource needs.
c)to plan management succession.
d)to decide and jusitfy reward allocations.
e)to analyze competition.

to analyze competition.

Which of these is NOT a problem identified with the 360-degree feedback system?
a)The manager must have a think skin.
b)Some comments may be threatening.
c)It gives a wider range of performance-related feedback.
d)Must focus on constructive criticism.
e)The manager may hear some personal comments on sensitive topics.

It gives a wider range of performance-related feedback

Which of the following is true about 360-degree feedback?
Incorrect Response
a)Very few companies have adopted 360-degree systems.

b)Traditional evaluations are usually more effective than 360-degree systems.

c)Evaluators in a 360-degree system tend to focus on objective performance.

d)Managers are likely to hear some personal comments on sensitive topics.

e)Using 360-degree feedback has several key advantages, and virtually no disadvantages.

Managers are likely to hear some personal comments on sensitive topics.

The courts and Equal Employment Opportunity guidelines have mandated that performance measurements be based on
a)age and sex.
b)race and national origin.
c)industry standards.
d)job-related criteria.
e)competitive benchmarks.

job-related criteria

The organization's compensation structure should be
a)equitable.
b)open to the public.
c)established outside of legal constraints
d)below the external labor market.
e)be based on interview data.

equitable.

Cynthia was one of many employees who received a generous Christmas bonus, which carried ____ value for Cynthia.
a)symbolic
b)tangible
c)surface
d)compensation
e)intangible

surface

Which of the following is an example of an incentive program?
a)Salary
b)Gain-sharing
c)Hourly rate
d)Wages
e)Benefits

Wages

All of the following are true about employee benefits except
a)some organizations pay the entire cost of benefits.

b)offering benefits became a standard component of compensation during World War II.

c)some employees demand benefits through union bargaining.

d)the burden of providing employee benefits is easier for firms in the United States compared to organizations in other countries.

e)organizations are required by law to offer certain benefits.

the burden of providing employee benefits is easier for firms in the United States compared to organizations in other countries.

Which of these describes self efficacy It refers to the extent to which an individual?

Which of these describes self-efficacy? It refers to the extent to which an individual. a)is willing to expend effort in order to attain a goal.

Which of the following is the third step in OB modification quizlet?

Which of the following is third step in OB modification? Identify the existing behavioral contingencies or consequences of performance. According to Maslow, if a previously satisfied lower- level needs to become deficient, the individual returns to the lowest level that is now deficient.

Which of the following is not a core topic of organizational Behaviour?

The correct answer is: D) resource allocation. The core topics of organizational behavior are motivation, conflict, work design, and attitude development. Resource allocation is not a part of organizational behavior.

Which of the following is a reason that the study of OB is important for students?

Which of the following is a reason that the study of OB is important for students? The topics OB studies relate to skills that are highly valued by employers.