Which nursing activity is least effective for the person experiencing ARDS Quizlet

1. Which diagnostic test will provide the nurse with the most specific information to evaluate the effectiveness of interventions for a patient with ventilatory failure?
a. Chest x-ray
b. O2 saturation
c. Arterial blood gas analysis
d. Central venous pressure monitoring

ANS: C
Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis is most useful in this setting because ventilatory failure causes problems with CO2 retention, and ABGs provide information about the PaCO2 and pH. The other tests may also be done to help in assessing oxygenation or determining the cause of the patient's ventilatory failure.

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2. While caring for a patient who has been admitted with a pulmonary embolism, the nurse notes a change in the patient's oxygen saturation (SpO2) from 94% to 88%. Which action should the nurse take?
a. Suction the patient's oropharynx.
b. Increase the prescribed O2 flow rate.
c. Instruct the patient to cough and deep breathe.
d. Help the patient to sit in a more upright position.

ANS: B
Increasing O2 flow rate will usually improve O2 saturation in patients with ventilation-perfusion mismatch, as occurs with pulmonary embolism. Because the problem is with perfusion, actions that improve ventilation, such as deep breathing and coughing, sitting upright, and suctioning, are not likely to improve oxygenation.

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3. A patient with respiratory failure has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 88%. The patient is increasingly lethargic. Which intervention will the nurse anticipate?
a. Administration of 100% O2 by non-rebreather mask
b. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation
c. Insertion of a mini-tracheostomy with frequent suctioning
d. Initiation of continuous positive pressure ventilation (CPAP)

ANS: B
The patient's lethargy, low respiratory rate, and SpO2 indicate the need for mechanical ventilation with ventilator-controlled respiratory rate. Giving high-flow O2 will not be helpful because the patient's respiratory rate is so low. Insertion of a mini-tracheostomy will facilitate removal of secretions, but it will not improve the patient's respiratory rate or oxygenation. CPAP requires that the patient initiate an adequate respiratory rate to allow adequate gas exchange.

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4. The oxygen saturation (SpO2) for a patient with left lower lobe pneumonia is 90%. The patient has wheezes, a weak cough effort, and complains of fatigue. Which action should the nurse take next?
a. Position the patient on the left side.
b. Assist the patient with staged coughing.
c. Place a humidifier in the patient's room.
d. Schedule a 4-hour rest period for the patient.

ANS: B
The patient's assessment indicates that assisted coughing is needed to help remove secretions, which will improve oxygenation. A 4-hour rest period at this time may allow the O2 saturation to drop further. Humidification will not be helpful unless the secretions can be mobilized. Positioning on the left side may cause a further decrease in oxygen saturation because perfusion will be directed more toward the more poorly ventilated lung.

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5. A nurse is caring for an obese patient with right lower lobe pneumonia. Which position will be best to improve gas exchange?
a. On the left side
b. On the right side
c. In the tripod position
d. In the high-Fowler's position

ANS: A
The patient should be positioned with the "good" lung in the dependent position to improve the match between ventilation and perfusion. The obese patient's abdomen will limit respiratory excursion when sitting in the high-Fowler's or tripod positions.

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6. When admitting a patient with possible respiratory failure and a high PaCO2, which assessment information should be immediately reported to the health care provider?
a. The patient is very somnolent.
b. The patient complains of weakness.
c. The patient's blood pressure is 164/98.
d. The patient's oxygen saturation is 90%.

ANS: A
Increasing somnolence will decrease the patient's respiratory rate and further increase the PaCO2 and respiratory failure. Rapid action is needed to prevent respiratory arrest. An SpO2 of 90%, weakness, and elevated blood pressure all require ongoing monitoring but are not indicators of possible impending respiratory arrest.

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7. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and acute kidney injury has the following drugs ordered. Which drug should the nurse discuss with the health care provider before giving?
a. gentamicin 60 mg IV
b. pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg IV
c. sucralfate (Carafate) 1 g per nasogastric tube
d. methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 60 mg IV

ANS: A
Gentamicin, which is one of the aminoglycoside antibiotics, is potentially nephrotoxic, and the nurse should clarify the drug and dosage with the health care provider before administration. The other drugs are appropriate for the patient with ARDS.

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8. A patient develops increasing dyspnea and hypoxemia 2 days after heart surgery. To determine whether the patient has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) or pulmonary edema caused by heart failure, the nurse will plan to assist with
a. obtaining a ventilation-perfusion scan.
b. drawing blood for arterial blood gases.
c. positioning the patient for a chest x-ray.
d. insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter.

ANS: D
Pulmonary artery wedge pressures are normal in the patient with ARDS because the fluid in the alveoli is caused by increased permeability of the alveolar-capillary membrane rather than by the backup of fluid from the lungs (as occurs in cardiogenic pulmonary edema). The other tests will not help in differentiating cardiogenic from noncardiogenic pulmonary edema.

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9. A nurse is caring for a patient with ARDS who is being treated with mechanical ventilation and high levels of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates that the PEEP may need to be reduced?
a. The patient's PaO2 is 50 mm Hg and the SaO2 is 88%.
b. The patient has subcutaneous emphysema on the upper thorax.
c. The patient has bronchial breath sounds in both the lung fields.
d. The patient has a first-degree atrioventricular heart block with a rate of 58 beats/min.

ANS: B
The subcutaneous emphysema indicates barotrauma caused by positive pressure ventilation and PEEP. Bradycardia, hypoxemia, and bronchial breath sounds are all concerns and will need to be addressed, but they are not specific indications that PEEP should be reduced.

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10. Which statement by the nurse when explaining the purpose of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the patient's caregiver is accurate?
a. "PEEP will push more air into the lungs during inhalation."
b. "PEEP prevents the lung air sacs from collapsing during exhalation."
c. "PEEP will prevent lung damage while the patient is on the ventilator."
d. "PEEP allows the breathing machine to deliver 100% O2 to the lungs."

ANS: B
By preventing alveolar collapse during expiration, PEEP improves gas exchange and oxygenation. PEEP will not prevent lung damage (e.g., fibrotic changes that occur with ARDS), push more air into the lungs, or change the fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) delivered to the patient.

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11. When prone positioning is used for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the positioning is effective?
a. The patient's PaO2 is 89 mm Hg, and the SaO2 is 91%.
b. Endotracheal suctioning results in clear mucous return.
c. Sputum and blood cultures show no growth after 48 hours.
d. The skin on the patient's back is intact and without redness.

ANS: A
The purpose of prone positioning is to improve the patient's oxygenation as indicated by the PaO2 and SaO2. The other information will be collected but does not indicate whether prone positioning has been effective.

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12. The nurse assesses vital signs for a patient admitted 2 days ago with gram-negative sepsis: temperature of 101.2° F, blood pressure of 90/56 mm Hg, pulse of 92 beats/min, and respirations of 34 breaths/min. Which action should the nurse take next?
a. Give the scheduled IV antibiotic.
b. Give the PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol).
c. Obtain oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry.
d. Notify the health care provider of the patient's vital signs.

ANS: C
The patient's increased respiratory rate in combination with the admission diagnosis of gram-negative sepsis indicates that acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) may be developing. The nurse should check for hypoxemia, a hallmark of ARDS. The health care provider should be notified after further assessment of the patient. Giving the scheduled antibiotic and the PRN acetaminophen will also be done, but they are not the highest priority for a patient who may be developing ARDS.

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13. A nurse is caring for a patient who is orally intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. To decrease the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care?
a. Elevate head of bed to 30 to 45 degrees.
b. Give enteral feedings at no more than 10 mL/hr.
c. Suction the endotracheal tube every 2 to 4 hours.
d. Limit the use of positive end-expiratory pressure.

ANS: A
Elevation of the head decreases the risk for aspiration. Positive end-expiratory pressure is frequently needed to improve oxygenation in patients receiving mechanical ventilation. Suctioning should be done only when the patient assessment indicates that it is necessary. Enteral feedings should provide adequate calories for the patient's high energy needs.

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14. A patient admitted with acute respiratory failure has ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions. Which nursing intervention would specifically address this patient problem?
a. Encourage use of the incentive spirometer.
b. Offer the patient fluids at frequent intervals.
c. Teach the patient the importance of ambulation.
d. Titrate oxygen level to keep O2 saturation above 93%.

ANS: B
Because the reason for the poor airway clearance is the thick secretions, the best action will be to encourage the patient to improve oral fluid intake. Patients should be instructed to use the incentive spirometer on a regular basis (e.g., every hour) to facilitate the clearance of the secretions. The other actions may also be helpful in improving the patient's gas exchange, but they do not address the thick secretions that are causing the poor airway clearance.

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15. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation develops a right pneumothorax. Which collaborative action will the nurse anticipate next?
a. Increase the tidal volume and respiratory rate.
b. Decrease the fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2).
c. Perform endotracheal suctioning more frequently.
d. Lower the positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP).

ANS: D
Because barotrauma is associated with high airway pressures, the level of PEEP should be decreased. The other actions will not decrease the risk for another pneumothorax.

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16. After receiving change-of-shift report on a medical unit, which patient should the nurse assess first?
a. A patient with cystic fibrosis who has thick, green-colored sputum
b. A patient with pneumonia who has crackles bilaterally in the lung bases
c. A patient with emphysema who has an oxygen saturation of 90% to 92%
d. A patient with septicemia who has intercostal and suprasternal retractions

ANS: D
This patient's history of septicemia and labored breathing suggest the onset of ARDS, which will require rapid interventions such as administration of O2 and use of positive-pressure ventilation. The other patients should also be assessed, but their assessment data are typical of their disease processes and do not suggest deterioration in their status.

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17. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) arrives in the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath and dyspnea on minimal exertion. Which assessment finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider?
a. The patient has bibasilar lung crackles.
b. The patient is sitting in the tripod position.
c. The patient's pulse oximetry indicates a 91% O2 saturation.
d. The patient's respirations have dropped to 10 breaths/minute.

ANS: D
A drop in respiratory rate in a patient with respiratory distress suggests the onset of fatigue and a high risk for respiratory arrest. Therefore immediate action such as positive-pressure ventilation is needed. Patients who are experiencing respiratory distress frequently sit in the tripod position because it decreases the work of breathing. Crackles in the lung bases may be the baseline for a patient with COPD. An O2 saturation of 91% is common in patients with COPD and will provide adequate gas exchange and tissue oxygenation.

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18. When assessing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the nurse finds a new onset of agitation and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?
a. Observe for facial symmetry.
b. Notify the health care provider.
c. Attempt to calm and reorient the patient.
d. Assess oxygenation using pulse oximetry.

ANS: D
Because agitation and confusion are frequently the initial indicators of hypoxemia, the nurse's initial action should be to assess O2 saturation. The other actions are also appropriate, but assessment of oxygenation takes priority over other assessments and notification of the health care provider.

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19. The nurse is caring for a patient who arrived in the emergency department with acute respiratory distress. Which assessment finding by the nurse requires the most rapid action?
a. The patient's PaO2 is 45 mm Hg.
b. The patient's PaCO2 is 33 mm Hg.
c. The patient's respirations are shallow.
d. The patient's respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min.

ANS: A
The PaO2 indicates severe hypoxemia and respiratory failure. Rapid action is needed to prevent further deterioration of the patient. Although the shallow breathing, rapid respiratory rate, and low PaCO2 also need to be addressed, the most urgent problem is the patient's poor oxygenation.

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20. The nurse is caring for an older patient who was hospitalized 2 days earlier with community-acquired pneumonia. Which assessment information is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
a. Persistent cough of blood-tinged sputum.
b. Scattered crackles in the posterior lung bases.
c. Oxygen saturation 90% on 100% O2 by nonrebreather mask.
d. Temperature 101.5° F (38.6° C) after 2 days of IV antibiotics.

ANS: C
The patient's low SpO2 despite receiving a high fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) indicates the possibility of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The patient's blood-tinged sputum and scattered crackles are not unusual in a patient with pneumonia, although they do require continued monitoring. The continued temperature elevation indicates a possible need to change antibiotics, but this is not as urgent a concern as the progression toward hypoxemia despite an increase in O2 flow rate.

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21. Which nursing interventions included in the care of a mechanically ventilated patient with acute respiratory failure can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) working in the intensive care unit?
a. Assess breath sounds every hour.
b. Monitor central venous pressures.
c. Place patient in the prone position.
d. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.

ANS: D
Insertion of indwelling urinary catheters is included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice and can be safely delegated to an LPN/LVN who is experienced in caring for critically ill patients. Placing a patient who is on a ventilator in the prone position requires multiple staff, and should be supervised by an RN. Assessment of breath sounds and obtaining central venous pressures require advanced assessment skills and should be done by the RN caring for a critically ill patient.

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22. A nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is receiving mechanical ventilation using synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). The settings include fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) of 80%, tidal volume of 450, rate of 16/minute, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 5 cm. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?
a. O2 saturation of 99%
b. Heart rate 106 beats/minute
c. Crackles audible at lung bases
d. Respiratory rate 22 breaths/minute

ANS: A
The FIO2 of 80% increases the risk for O2 toxicity. Because the patient's O2 saturation is 99%, a decrease in FIO2 is indicated to avoid toxicity. The other patient data would be typical for a patient with ARDS and would not be the most important data to report to the health care provider.

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23. Which information about a patient who is receiving cisatracurium (Nimbex) to prevent asynchronous breathing with the positive pressure ventilator requires action by the nurse?
a. No sedative has been ordered for the patient.
b. The patient does not respond to verbal stimulation.
c. There is no cough or gag reflex when the patient is suctioned.
d. The patient's oxygen saturation remains between 90% to 93%.

ANS: A
Because neuromuscular blockade is extremely anxiety provoking, it is essential that patients who are receiving neuromuscular blockade receive concurrent sedation and analgesia. Absence of response to stimuli is expected in patients receiving neuromuscular blockade. The O2 saturation is adequate.

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24. The nurse is caring for a patient who is intubated and receiving positive pressure ventilation to treat acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider?
a. Red-brown drainage from nasogastric tube
b. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level 32 mg/dL
c. Scattered coarse crackles heard throughout lungs
d. Arterial blood gases: pH of 7.31, PaCO2 of 50, and PaO2 of 68

ANS: A
The nasogastric drainage indicates possible gastrointestinal bleeding or stress ulcer and should be reported. The pH and PaCO2 are slightly abnormal, but current guidelines advocating for permissive hypercapnia indicate that these would not indicate an immediate need for a change in therapy. The BUN is slightly elevated but does not indicate an immediate need for action. Adventitious breath sounds are commonly heard in patients with ARDS.

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25. During change-of-shift report on a medical unit, the nurse learns that a patient with aspiration pneumonia who was admitted with respiratory distress has become increasingly agitated. Which action should the nurse take first?
a. Give the prescribed PRN sedative drug.
b. Offer reassurance and reorient the patient.
c. Use pulse oximetry to check the oxygen saturation.
d. Notify the health care provider about the patient's status.

ANS: C
Agitation may be an early indicator of hypoxemia. The other actions may also be appropriate, depending on the findings about O2 saturation.

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DELETE26. The nurse reviews the electronic health record for a patient scheduled for a total hip replacement. Which assessment data shown in the accompanying figure increase the patient's risk for respiratory complications after surgery?
https://www.flickr.com/photos/162774456@N03/32448811317/in/dateposted-public/

a. Older age and anemia
b. Albumin level and weight loss
c. Recent arthroscopic procedure
d. Confusion and disorientation to time

ANS: B
The patient's recent weight loss and low protein stores indicate possible muscle weakness, which make it more difficult for an older patient to recover from the effects of general anesthesia and immobility associated with the hip surgery. The other information will also be noted by the nurse but does not place the patient at higher risk for respiratory failure.

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MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1. Which actions should the nurse start to reduce the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) (select all that apply)?
a. Obtain arterial blood gases daily.
b. Provide a "sedation holiday" daily.
c. Give prescribed pantoprazole (Protonix).
d. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30°.
e. Provide oral care with chlorhexidine (0.12%) solution daily.

ANS: B, C, D, E
All of these interventions are part of the ventilator bundle that is recommended to prevent VAP. Arterial blood gases may be done daily but are not always necessary and do not help prevent VAP.

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LEWIS Practice Questions: End of chapter
1. Which signs and symptoms differentiate hypoxemic respiratory failure from hypercapnic respiratory failure (Select all that apply):
a. Cyanosis
b. Tachypnea
c. Morning headache
d. Paradoxic breathing
e. Use of pursed-lip breathing

ANS: A, b, d
a. Cyanosis
b. Tachypnea
d. Paradoxic breathing

2. The O2 delivery system chosen for the patient in acute respiratory failure should

a. always be a low-flow device, such as a nasal cannula or face mask.

b. administer continuous positive airway pressure ventilation to prevent CO2 narcosis.

c. correct the PaO2 to a normal level as quickly as possible using mechanical ventilation.

d. maintain the PaO2 at greater than or equal to 60 mm Hg at the lowest O2 concentration possible.

D
. maintain the PaO2 at greater than or equal to 60 mm Hg at the lowest O2 concentration possible.

The most common early clinical manifestation of ARDS that the nurse may observe are:
a. dyspnea and tachypnea
b. cyanosis and apprehension
c. hypotension and tachycardia
d. respiratory distress and frothy sputum

ANS: a. dyspnea and tachypnea

4. Maintenance of fluid balance in the patient with ARDS invoves:
a. hydration using colloids
b. administration of surfacant
c. fluid restriction and diuretics as necessary
d. keeping the hemoglobin at levels above 9 g/dL (90 g/L)

ANS: c. fluid restriction and diuretics as necessary

5. Which intervention is most likely to prevent or limit barotrauma in the patient with ARDS who is mechannically ventilated:
a. Decreasing PEEP
b. Increasing the tiday volume
c. Use of permissive hypercapnia
d. Use of positive pressure ventilation

c. Use of permissive hypercapnia

Question 6 of 15
The patient has pulmonary fibrosis and experiences hypoxemia during exercise but not at rest. To plan patient care, the nurse should know the patient is experiencing which physiologic mechanism of respiratory failure?

A. Diffusion limitation
B. Intrapulmonary shunt
C. Alveolar hypertension
D. Ventilation-perfusion mismatch:

A

The patient with pulmonary fibrosis has a thickened alveolar-capillary interface that slows gas transport, and hypoxemia is more likely during exercise than at rest. Intrapulmonary shunt occurs when alveoli fill with fluid (e.g., acute respiratory distress syndrome, pneumonia). Alveolar hypoventilation occurs when there is a generalized decrease in ventilation (e.g., restrictive lung disease, central nervous system diseases, neuromuscular diseases). Ventilation-perfusion mismatch occurs when the amount of air does not match the amount of blood that the lung receives (e.g., chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pulmonary embolus).

Question 9 of 15
The nurse is caring for a patient who is admitted with a barbiturate overdose. The patient is comatose with a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, apical pulse of 110 beats/min, and respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. Based on the initial assessment findings, the nurse recognizes that the patient is at risk for which type of respiratory failure?
• A. Hypoxemic respiratory failure related to shunting of blood
• B. Hypoxemic respiratory failure related to diffusion limitation
• C. Hypercapnic respiratory failure related to alveolar hypoventilation
• D. Hypercapnic respiratory failure related to increased airway resistance

ANS: C.
• Hypercapnic respiratory failure related to alveolar hypoventilation (CORRECT)
The patient's respiratory rate is decreased as a result of barbiturate overdose, which caused respiratory depression. The patient is at risk for hypercapnic respiratory failure due to an obtunded airway causing decreased respiratory rate and thus decreased CO2 elimination. Barbiturate overdose does not lead to shunting of blood, diffusion limitations, or increased airway resistance.

When explaining respiratory failure to the patient's family, what should the nurse use as an accurate description?
a. The absence of ventilation
b. Any episode in which part of the airway is obstructed
c. Inadequate gas exchange to meet the metabolic needs of the body
d. An episode of acute hypoxemia caused by a pulmonary dysfunction

c.

Respiratory failure results when the transfer of oxygen
or carbon dioxide function of the respiratory system is
impaired and, although the definition is determined by PaO2
and PaCO2
levels, the major factor in respiratory failure is
inadequate gas exchange to meet tissue oxygen (O2
) needs.
Absence of ventilation is respiratory arrest and partial
airway obstruction may not necessarily cause respiratory
failure. Acute hypoxemia may be caused by factors other
than pulmonary dysfunction

Which descriptions are characteristic of hypoxemic respiratory failure (select all that apply)?

a. Referred to as ventilatory failure
b. Primary problem is inadequate O2 transfer
c. Risk of inadequate O2
saturation of hemoglobin exists
d. Body is unable to compensate for acidemia of increased PaCO2
e. Most often caused by ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatch and shunt
f. Exists when PaO2 is 60 mm Hg or less, even when O2
is administered at 60%

B C E F

Hypoxemic respiratory failure is often caused
by ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatch and shunt. It is
called oxygenation failure because the primary problem is
inadequate oxygen transfer. There is a risk of inadequate
oxygen saturation of hemoglobin and it exists when PaO2
is 60 mm Hg or less, even when oxygen is administered at
60%. Ventilatory failure is hypercapnic respiratory failure.
Hypercapnic respiratory failure results from an imbalance
between ventilatory supply and ventilatory demand and the
body is unable to compensate for the acidemia of increased
PaCO2

When teaching the patient about what was happening when experiencing an intrapulmonary shunt, which
explanation is accurate?

a. This occurs when an obstruction impairs the flow of blood to the ventilated areas of the lung.
b. This occurs when blood passes through an anatomic channel in the heart and bypasses the lungs.
c. This occurs when blood flows through the capillaries in the lungs without participating in gas exchange.
d. Gas exchange across the alveolar capillary interface is compromised by thickened or damaged alveolar
membranes.

C

Intrapulmonary shunt occurs when blood flows through
the capillaries in the lungs without participating in gas
exchange (e.g., acute respiratory distress syndrome
[ARDS], pneumonia). Obstruction impairs the flow of
blood to the ventilated areas of the lung in a V/Q mismatch
ratio greater than 1 (e.g., pulmonary embolus). Blood passes
through an anatomic channel in the heart and bypasses the
lungs with anatomic shunt (e.g., ventricular septal defect).
Gas exchange across the alveolar capillary interface is compromised by thickened or damaged alveolar membranes
in diffusion limitation (e.g., pulmonary fibrosis, ARDS).

When the V/Q lung scan result returns with a mismatch ratio that is greater than 1, which condition should be suspected?
a. Pain
b. Atelectasis
c. Pulmonary embolus
d. Ventricular septal defect

C

There will be more ventilation than perfusion (V/Q
ratio greater than 1) with a pulmonary embolus. Pain and
atelectasis will cause a V/Q ratio less than 1. A ventricular
septal defect causes an anatomic shunt as the blood
bypasses the lungs.

Which physiologic mechanism of hypoxemia occurs with pulmonary fibrosis?

a. Anatomic shunt
b. Diffusion limitation
c. Intrapulmonary shunt
d. V/Q mismatch ratio of less than 1

B

Diffusion limitation in pulmonary fibrosis is caused by
thickened alveolar-capillary interface, which slows gas
transport.

Which patient with the following manifestations is most likely to develop hypercapnic respiratory failure?

a. Rapid, deep respirations in response to pneumonia
b. Slow, shallow respirations as a result of sedative overdose
c. Large airway resistance as a result of severe bronchospasm
d. Poorly ventilated areas of the lung caused by pulmonary edema

B

Hypercapnic respiratory failure is associated with alveolar
hypoventilation with increases in alveolar and arterial carbon
dioxide (CO2
) and often is caused by problems outside
the lungs. A patient with slow, shallow respirations is not
exchanging enough gas volume to eliminate CO2
. Deep, rapid
respirations reflect hyperventilation and often accompany lung
problems that cause hypoxemic respiratory failure. Pulmonary
edema and large airway resistance cause obstruction of
oxygenation and result in a V/Q mismatch or shunt typical of
hypoxemic respiratory failure.

Which arterial blood gas (ABG) results would most likely indicate acute respiratory failure in a patient with chronic
lung disease?

a. PaO2 52 mm Hg, PaCO2 56 mm Hg, pH 7.4

b. PaO2 46 mm Hg, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, pH 7.36

c. PaO2 48 mm Hg, PaCO2 54 mm Hg, pH 7.38

d. PaO2 50 mm Hg, PaCO2 54 mm Hg, pH 7.28

D

In a patient with normal lung function, respiratory
failure is commonly defined as a PaO2 ≤60 mm Hg or a
PaCO2
>45 mm Hg or both. However, because the patient
with chronic pulmonary disease normally maintains low
PaO2
and high PaCO2
, acute respiratory failure in these
patients can be defined as an acute decrease in PaO2
or an
increase in PaCO2
from the patient's baseline parameters,
accompanied by an acidic pH. The pH of 7.28 reflects an
acidemia and a loss of compensation in the patient with
chronic lung disease.

The patient is being admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with hypercapnic respiratory failure. Which
manifestations should the nurse expect to assess in the patient (select all that apply)?
a. Cyanosis
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Morning headache
d. Respiratory acidosis
e. Use of tripod position
f. Rapid, shallow respirations

C D E F

Morning headache, respiratory acidosis, the use
of tripod position, and rapid, shallow respirations would
be expected. The other manifestations are characteristic of
hypoxemic respiratory failure.

Which assessment finding should cause the nurse to suspect the early onset of hypoxemia?
a. Restlessness
b. Hypotension
c. Central cyanosis
d. Cardiac dysrhythmias

A

Because the brain is very sensitive to a decrease in
oxygen delivery, restlessness, agitation, disorientation,
and confusion are early signs of hypoxemia, for which the
nurse should be alert. Mild hypertension is also an early
sign, accompanied by tachycardia. Central cyanosis is an unreliable, late sign of hypoxemia. Cardiac dysrhythmias also occur later

Which changes of aging contribute to the increased risk for respiratory failure in older adults (select all that apply)?
a. Alveolar dilation
b. Increased delirium
c. Changes in vital signs
d. Increased infection risk
e. Decreased respiratory muscle strength
f. Diminished elastic recoil within the airways

A D E F

Changes from aging that increase the older
adult's risk for respiratory failure include alveolar dilation,
increased risk for infection, decreased respiratory muscle
strength, and diminished elastic recoil in the airways.
Although delirium can complicate ventilator management,
it does not increase the older patient's risk for respiratory
failure. The older adult's blood pressure (BP) and heart rate
(HR) increase but this does not affect the risk for respiratory
failure. The ventilatory capacity is decreased and the larger
air spaces decrease the surface area for gas exchange, which
increases the risk.

The nurse assesses that a patient in respiratory distress is developing respiratory fatigue and the risk of respiratory
arrest when the patient displays which behavior?

a. Cannot breathe unless he is sitting upright
b. Uses the abdominal muscles during expiration
c. Has an increased inspiratory-expiratory (I/E) ratio
d. Has a change in respiratory rate from rapid to slow

D

The increase in respiratory rate required to blow off
accumulated CO2
predisposes to respiratory muscle fatigue.
The slowing of a rapid rate in a patient in acute distress
indicates tiring and the possibility of respiratory arrest
unless ventilatory assistance is provided. A decreased
inspiratory-expiratory (I/E) ratio, orthopnea, and accessory
muscle use are common findings in respiratory distress but
do not necessarily signal respiratory fatigue or arrest.

A patient has a PaO2 of 50 mm Hg and a PaCO2 of 42 mm Hg because of an intrapulmonary shunt. Which therapy is
the patient most likely to respond best to?

a. Positive pressure ventilation
b. Oxygen administration at a FIO2 of 100%
c. Administration of O2
per nasal cannula at 1 to 3 L/min
d. Clearance of airway secretions with coughing and suctioning

A

patients with a V/Q mismatch because the alveoli are filled with fluid, which prevents gas exchange. Hypoxemia
resulting from an intrapulmonary shunt is usually not
responsive to high O2
concentrations and the patient will
usually require positive pressure ventilation. Hypoxemia
associated with a V/Q mismatch usually responds favorably
to O2
administration at 1 to 3 L/min by nasal cannula.
Removal of secretions with coughing and suctioning is
generally not effective in reversing an acute hypoxemia
resulting from a shunt.

A patient with a massive hemothorax and pneumothorax has absent breath sounds in the right lung. To promote
improved V/Q matching, how should the nurse position the patient?
a. On the left side
b. On the right side
c. In a reclining chair bed
d. Supine with the head of the bed elevated

A

When there is impaired function of one lung, the patient
should be positioned with the unaffected lung in the
dependent position to promote perfusion to the functioning
tissue. If the diseased lung is positioned dependently, more
V/Q mismatch would occur. The head of the bed may be
elevated or a reclining chair may be used, with the patient
positioned on the unaffected side, to maximize thoracic
expansion if the patient has increased work of breathing.

A patient in hypercapnic respiratory failure has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to
increasing exhaustion. What is an appropriate nursing intervention for this patient?

a. Inserting an oral airway
b. Performing augmented coughing
c. Teaching the patient huff coughing
d. Teaching the patient slow pursed lip breathing

B

The patient with a history of heart failure and acute respiratory failure has thick secretions that she is having
difficulty coughing up. Which intervention would best help to mobilize her secretions?

a. Administer more IV fluid by aerosol mask
b. Perform postural drainage
c. Provide O2
d. Suction airways nasopharyngeall

C

For the patient with a history of heart failure, current
acute respiratory failure, and thick secretions, the best
intervention is to liquefy the secretions with either aerosol
mask or using normal saline administered by a nebulizer.
Excess IV fluid may cause cardiovascular distress and the
patient probably would not tolerate postural drainage with
her history. Suctioning thick secretions without thinning
them is difficult and increases the patient's difficulty in
maintaining oxygenation. With copious secretions, this
could be done after thinning the secretions.

After endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation have been started, a patient in
respiratory failure becomes very agitated and is breathing asynchronously with the ventilator. What is it most
important for the nurse to do first?
a. Evaluate the patient's pain level, ABGs, and electrolyte values
b. Sedate the patient to unconsciousness to eliminate patient awareness
c. Administer the PRN vecuronium (Norcuron) to promote synchronous ventilations
d. Slow the rate of ventilations provided by the ventilator to allow for spontaneous breathing by the patient

A

It is most important to assess the patient for the cause
of the restlessness and agitation (e.g., pain, hypoxemia,
electrolyte imbalances) and treat the underlying cause
before sedating the patient. Although sedation, analgesia,
and neuromuscular blockade are often used to control
agitation and pain, these treatments may contribute to
prolonged ventilator support and hospital days.

What is the primary reason that hemodynamic monitoring is instituted in severe respiratory failure?

a. To detect V/Q mismatches
b. To continuously measure the arterial BP
c. To evaluate oxygenation and ventilation status
d. To evaluate cardiac status and blood flow to tissues

D

Hemodynamic monitoring with a pulmonary artery
catheter is instituted in severe respiratory failure to
determine the amount of blood flow to tissues and the
response of the lungs and heart to hypoxemia. Continuous
BP monitoring may be performed but BP is a reflection of
cardiac activity, which can be determined by the pulmonary
artery catheter findings. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) are
important to evaluate oxygenation and ventilation status and
V/Q mismatches.

Patients with acute respiratory failure will have drug therapy to meet their individual needs. Which drugs will meet
the goal of reducing pulmonary congestion (select all that apply)?
a. Morphine
b. Furosemide (Lasix)
c. Nitroglycerin (Tridil)
d. Albuterol (Ventolin)
e. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
f. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)

A B C

Morphine and nitroglycerin (e.g., Tridil) will
decrease pulmonary congestion caused by heart failure; IV
diuretics (e.g., furosemide [Lasix]) are also used. Inhaled
albuterol (Ventolin) or metaproterenol (Alupent) will relieve
bronchospasms. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and azithromycin
(Zithromax) are used to treat pulmonary infections.
Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol), an IV corticosteroid, will reduce airway inflammation. Morphine is also used to
decrease anxiety, agitation, and pain.`

In caring for a patient in acute respiratory failure, the nurse recognizes that noninvasive positive pressure ventilation
(NIPPV) may be indicated for which patient?

a. Is comatose and has high oxygen requirements
b. Has copious secretions that require frequent suctioning
c. Responds to hourly bronchodilator nebulization treatments
d. Is alert and cooperative but has increasing respiratory exhaustion

D

Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)
involves the application of a face mask and delivery of
a volume of air under inspiratory pressure. Because the
device is worn externally, the patient must be able to
cooperate in its use and frequent access to the airway for
suctioning or inhaled medications must not be necessary. It
is not indicated when high levels of oxygen are needed or
respirations are absent.

The patient progressed from acute lung injury to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). He is on the ventilator
and receiving propofol (Diprivan) for sedation and fentanyl (Sublimaze) to decrease anxiety, agitation, and pain
in order to decrease his work of breathing, O2
consumption, carbon dioxide production, and risk of injury. What
intervention is recommended in caring for this patient?

a. A sedation holiday
b. Monitoring for hypermetabolism
c. Keeping his legs still to avoid dislodging the airway
d. Repositioning him every 4 hours to decrease agitation

A

A sedation holiday is needed to assess the patient's
condition and readiness to extubate. A hypermetabolic state
occurs with critical illness. With malnourished patients,
enteral or parenteral nutrition is started within 24 hours;
with well-nourished patients it is started within 3 days.
With these medications, the patient will be assessed for
cardiopulmonary depression. Venous thromboembolism
prophylaxis will be used but there is no reason to keep the
legs still. Repositioning the patient every 2 hours may help
to decrease discomfort and agitation

Although ARDS may result from direct lung injury or indirect lung injury as a result of systemic inflammatory response
syndrome (SIRS), the nurse is aware that ARDS is most likely to occur in the patient with a host insult resulting from

a. sepsis.
b. oxygen toxicity.
c. prolonged hypotension.
d. cardiopulmonary bypass.

A

Although ARDS may occur in the patient who has
virtually any severe illness and may be both a cause and a
result of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS),
the most common precipitating insults of ARDS are sepsis,
gastric aspiration, and severe massive trauma.

What are the primary pathophysiologic changes that occur in the injury or exudative phase of ARDS (select all
that apply)?

a. Atelectasis
b. Shortness of breath
c. Interstitial and alveolar edema
d. Hyaline membranes line the alveoli
e. Influx of neutrophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes

A C D

he injury or exudative phase is the early phase of
ARDS when atelectasis and interstitial and alveoli edema
occur and hyaline membranes composed of necrotic cells,
protein, and fibrin line the alveoli. Together, these decrease
gas exchange capability and lung compliance. Shortness
of breath occurs but it is not a physiologic change. The
increased inflammation and proliferation of fibroblasts
occurs in the reparative or proliferative phase of ARDS,
which occurs 1 to 2 weeks after the initial lung injury.

In patients with ARDS who survive the acute phase of lung injury, what manifestations are seen when they progress
to the fibrotic phase?

a. Chronic pulmonary edema and atelectasis
b. Resolution of edema and healing of lung tissue
c. Continued hypoxemia because of diffusion limitation
d. Increased lung compliance caused by the breakdown of fibrotic tissue

C

In the fibrotic phase of ARDS, diffuse scarring and
fibrosis of the lungs occur, resulting in decreased surface
area for gas exchange and continued hypoxemia caused
by diffusion limitation. Although edema is resolved, lung
compliance is decreased because of interstitial fibrosis.
Long-term mechanical ventilation is required. The patient
has a poor prognosis for survival.

In caring for the patient with ARDS, what is the most characteristic sign the nurse would expect the patient to exhibit?

a. Refractory hypoxemia
b. Bronchial breath sounds
c. Progressive hypercapnia
d. Increased pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)

A

Refractory hypoxemia, hypoxemia that does not respond
to increasing concentrations of oxygenation by any route,
is a hallmark of ARDS and is always present. Bronchial
breath sounds may be associated with the progression of
ARDS. PaCO2
levels may be normal until the patient is no
longer able to compensate in response to the hypoxemia.
Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) that is normally
elevated in cardiogenic pulmonary edema is normal in the
pulmonary edema of ARDS.

The nurse suspects the early stage of ARDS in any seriously ill patient who manifests what?

a. Develops respiratory acidosis
b. Has diffuse crackles and rhonchi
c. Exhibits dyspnea and restlessness
d. Has a decreased PaO2 and an increased PaCO2

C

Early signs of ARDS are insidious and difficult to
detect but the nurse should be alert for any early signs
of hypoxemia, such as dyspnea, restlessness, tachypnea,
cough, and decreased mentation, in patients at risk for
ARDS. Abnormal findings on physical examination or
diagnostic studies, such as adventitious lung sounds, signs
of respiratory distress, respiratory alkalosis, or decreasing
PaO2
, are usually indications that ARDS has progressed
beyond the initial stages.

A patient with ARDS has a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection. To detect the presence of infections commonly
associated with ARDS, what should the nurse monitor?
a. Gastric aspirate for pH and blood
b. Quality, quantity, and consistency of sputum
c. Subcutaneous emphysema of the face, neck, and chest
d. Mucous membranes of the oral cavity for open lesions

B

Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) is one of the
most common complications of ARDS. Early detection
requires frequent monitoring of sputum smears and cultures and assessment of the quality, quantity, and consistency
of sputum. Prevention of VAP is done with strict infection
control measures, ventilator bundle protocol, and subglottal
secretion drainage. Blood in gastric aspirate may indicate
a stress ulcer and subcutaneous emphysema of the face,
neck, and chest occurs with barotrauma during mechanical
ventilation. Oral infections may result from prophylactic
antibiotics and impaired host defenses but are not common.

The best patient response to treatment of ARDS occurs when initial management includes what?

a. Treatment of the underlying condition
b. Administration of prophylactic antibiotics
c. Treatment with diuretics and mild fluid restriction
d. Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation

A

Because ARDS is precipitated by a physiologic insult,
a critical factor in its prevention and early management
is treatment of the underlying condition. Prophylactic
antibiotics, treatment with diuretics and fluid restriction,
and mechanical ventilation are also used as ARDS
progresses.

When mechanical ventilation is used for the patient with ARDS, what is the rationale for applying positive end-
expiratory pressure (PEEP)?
a. Prevent alveolar collapse and open up collapsed alveoli
b. Permit smaller tidal volumes with permissive hypercapnia
c. Promote complete emptying of the lungs during exhalation
d. Permit extracorporeal oxygenation and carbon dioxide removal outside the body

A

Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) used with
mechanical ventilation applies positive pressure to the
airway and lungs at the end of exhalation, keeping the lung
partially expanded and preventing collapse of the alveoli
and helping to open up collapsed alveoli. Permissive
hypercapnia is allowed when the patient with ARDS is
ventilated with smaller tidal volumes to prevent barotrauma.
Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation and extracorporeal
CO2
removal involve passing blood across a gas-exchanging
membrane outside the body and then returning oxygenated
blood to the body.

The nurse suspects that a patient with PEEP is experiencing negative effects of this ventilatory maneuver when
which of the following is assessed?
a. Increasing PaO2
b. Decreasing blood pressure
c. Decreasing heart rate (HR)
d. Increasing central venous pressure (CVP)

B

PEEP increases intrathoracic and intrapulmonic
pressures, compresses the pulmonary capillary bed, and
reduces blood return to both the right and left sides of
the heart. Increased PaO2
is an expected effect of PEEP.
Preload (CVP) and cardiac output (CO) are decreased,
often with a dramatic decrease in BP.

Prone positioning is considered for a patient with ARDS who has not responded to other measures to increase PaO2
The nurse knows that this strategy will

a. increase the mobilization of pulmonary secretions.
b. decrease the workload of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles.
c. promote opening of atelectatic alveoli in the upper portion of the lung.
d. promote perfusion of nonatelectatic alveoli in the anterior portion of the lung.

D
When a patient with ARDS is supine, alveoli in the
posterior areas of the lung are dependent and fluid-filled
and the heart and mediastinal contents place more pressure
on the lungs, predisposing to atelectasis. If the patient is
turned prone, air-filled nonatelectatic alveoli in the anterior
portion of the lung receive more blood and perfusion
may be better matched to ventilation, causing less V/Q
mismatch. Lateral rotation therapy is used to stimulate
postural drainage and help mobilize pulmonary secretions.

To verify the correct placement of an oral endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion, the best initial action by the nurse is to
a. obtain a portable chest x-ray.
b. use an end-tidal CO2 monitor.
c. auscultate for bilateral breath sounds.
d. observe for symmetrical chest movement.

ANS: B
End-tidal CO2 monitors are currently recommended for rapid verification of ET placement. Auscultation for bilateral breath sounds and checking chest expansion are also used, but they are not as accurate as end-tidal CO2 monitoring. A chest x-ray confirms the placement but is done after the tube is secured.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

The nurse notes premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) while suctioning a patient's endotracheal tube. Which next action by the nurse is indicated?
a. Plan to suction the patient more frequently.
b. Decrease the suction pressure to 80 mm Hg.
c. Give antidysrhythmic medications per protocol.
d. Stop and ventilate the patient with 100% oxygen.

ANS: D
Dysrhythmias during suctioning may indicate hypoxemia or sympathetic nervous system stimulation. The nurse should stop suctioning and ventilate the patient with 100% O2. There is no indication that more frequent suctioning is needed. Lowering the suction pressure will decrease the effectiveness of suctioning without improving the hypoxemia. Because the PVCs occurred during suctioning, there is no need for antidysrhythmic medications (which may have adverse effects) unless they recur when the suctioning is stopped and patient is well oxygenated.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

The nurse notes thick, white secretions in the endotracheal tube (ET) of a patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which intervention will most directly treat this finding?
a. Reposition the patient every 1 to 2 hours.
b. Increase suctioning frequency to every hour.
c. Add additional water to the patient's enteral feedings.
d. Instill 5 mL of sterile saline into the ET before suctioning.

ANS: C
Because the patient's secretions are thick, better hydration is indicated. Suctioning every hour without any specific evidence for the need will increase the incidence of mucosal trauma and would not address the etiology of the ineffective airway clearance. Instillation of saline does not liquefy secretions and may decrease the SpO2. Repositioning the patient is appropriate but will not decrease the thickness of secretions.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

The nurse responds to a ventilator alarm and finds the patient lying in bed gasping and holding the endotracheal tube (ET) in her hand. Which action should the nurse take next?
a. Activate the rapid response team.
b. Provide reassurance to the patient.
c. Call the health care provider to reinsert the tube.
d. Manually ventilate the patient with 100% oxygen.

ANS: D
The nurse should ensure maximal patient oxygenation by manually ventilating with a bag-valve-mask system. Offering reassurance to the patient, notifying the health care provider about the need to reinsert the tube, and activating the rapid response team are also appropriate after the nurse has stabilized the patient's oxygenation.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

The nurse notes that a patient's endotracheal tube (ET), which was at the 22-cm mark, is now at the 25-cm mark, and the patient is anxious and restless. Which action should the nurse take next?
a. Check the O2 saturation.
b. Offer reassurance to the patient.
c. Listen to the patient's breath sounds.
d. Notify the patient's health care provider.

ANS: C
The nurse should first determine whether the ET tube has been displaced into the right mainstem bronchus by listening for unilateral breath sounds. If so, assistance will be needed to reposition the tube immediately. The other actions are also appropriate, but detection and correction of tube malposition are the most critical actions.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

The nurse educator is evaluating the care that a new registered nurse (RN) provides to a patient receiving mechanical ventilation. Which action by the new RN indicates the need for more education?
a. The RN increases the FIO2 to 100% before suctioning.
b. The RN secures a bite block in place using adhesive tape.
c. The RN asks for assistance to resecure the endotracheal tube.
d. The RN positions the patient with the head of bed at 10 degrees.

ANS: D
The head of the patient's bed should be positioned at 30 to 45 degrees to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. The other actions by the new RN are appropriate.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

When assisting with oral intubation of a patient who is having respiratory distress, in which order will the nurse take these actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E].)
a. Obtain a portable chest-x-ray.
b. Position the patient in the supine position.
c. Inflate the cuff of the endotracheal tube after insertion.
d. Attach an end-tidal CO2 detector to the endotracheal tube.
e. Oxygenate the patient with a bag-valve-mask device for several minutes.

ANS:
E, B, C, D, A

The patient is pre-oxygenated with a bag-valve-mask system for 3 to 5 minutes before intubation and then placed in a supine position. After the intubation, the cuff on the endotracheal tube is inflated to occlude and protect the airway. Tube placement is assessed first with an end-tidal CO2 sensor and then with chest x-ray examination.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient receiving mechanical ventilation indicates the need for suctioning?
a. The patient was last suctioned 6 hours ago.
b. The patient's oxygen saturation drops to 93%.
c. The patient's respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min.
d. The patient has occasional audible expiratory wheezes.

ANS: C
The increase in respiratory rate indicates that the patient may have decreased airway clearance and requires suctioning. Suctioning is done when patient assessment data indicate that it is needed and not on a scheduled basis. Occasional expiratory wheezes do not indicate poor airway clearance, and suctioning the patient may induce bronchospasm and increase wheezing. An O2 saturation of 93% is acceptable and does not suggest that immediate suctioning is needed.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

Four hours after mechanical ventilation is initiated, a patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results include a pH of 7.51, PaO2 of 82 mm Hg, PaCO2 of 26 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 23 mEq/L (23 mmol/L). The nurse will anticipate the need to
a. increase the FIO2.
b. increase the tidal volume.
c. increase the respiratory rate.
d. decrease the respiratory rate.

ANS: D
The patient's PaCO2 and pH indicate respiratory alkalosis caused by too high a respiratory rate. The PaO2 is appropriate for a patient with COPD and increasing the respiratory rate and tidal volume would further lower the PaCO2.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

A patient with respiratory failure has arterial pressure-based cardiac output (APCO) monitoring and is receiving mechanical ventilation with peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 12 cm H2O. Which information indicates that a change in the ventilator settings may be required?
a. The arterial pressure is 90/46.
b. The stroke volume is increased.
c. The heart rate is 58 beats/minute.
d. The stroke volume variation is 12%.

ANS: A
The hypotension suggests that the high intrathoracic pressure caused by the PEEP may be decreasing venous return and (potentially) cardiac output. The other assessment data would not be a direct result of PEEP and mechanical ventilation.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

A nurse is weaning a 68-kg patient who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) from mechanical ventilation. Which patient assessment finding indicates that the weaning protocol should be stopped?
a. The patient's heart rate is 97 beats/min.
b. The patient's oxygen saturation is 93%.
c. The patient respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min.
d. The patient's spontaneous tidal volume is 450 mL.

ANS: C
Tachypnea is a sign that the patient's work of breathing is too high to allow weaning to proceed. The patient's heart rate is within normal limits, but the nurse should continue to monitor it. An O2 saturation of 93% is acceptable for a patient with COPD. A spontaneous tidal volume of 450 mL is within the acceptable range.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

A patient who is orally intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation is anxious and is "fighting" the ventilator. Which action should the nurse take next?
a. Verbally coach the patient to breathe with the ventilator.
b. Sedate the patient with the ordered PRN lorazepam (Ativan).
c. Manually ventilate the patient with a bag-valve-mask device.
d. Increase the rate for the ordered propofol (Diprivan) infusion.

ANS: A
The initial response by the nurse should be to try to decrease the patient's anxiety by coaching the patient about how to coordinate respirations with the ventilator. The other actions may also be helpful if the verbal coaching is ineffective in reducing the patient's anxiety.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

The nurse educator is evaluating the performance of a new registered nurse (RN) who is providing care to a patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation with 15 cm H2O of peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). Which action indicates that the new RN is safe?
a. The RN plans to suction the patient every 1 to 2 hours.
b. The RN uses a closed-suction technique to suction the patient.
c. The RN tapes the connection between the ventilator tubing and the ET.
d. The RN changes the ventilator circuit tubing routinely every 48 hours.

ANS: B
The closed-suction technique is used when patients require high levels of PEEP (>10 cm H2O) to prevent the loss of PEEP that occurs when disconnecting the patient from the ventilator. Suctioning should not be scheduled routinely, but it should be done only when patient assessment data indicate the need for suctioning. Taping connections between the ET and ventilator tubing would restrict the ability of the tubing to swivel in response to patient repositioning. Ventilator tubing changes increase the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia and are not indicated routinely.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

The nurse is caring for a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage who is intubated and placed on a mechanical ventilator with 10 cm H2O of peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). When monitoring the patient, the nurse will need to notify the health care provider immediately if the patient develops
a. O2 saturation of 93%.
b. green nasogastric tube drainage.
c. respirations of 20 breaths/minute.
d. increased jugular venous distention.

ANS: D
Increases in jugular venous distention in a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage may indicate an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP) and that the PEEP setting is too high for this patient. A respiratory rate of 20, O2 saturation of 93%, and green nasogastric tube drainage are within normal limits.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

A patient who is receiving positive pressure ventilation is scheduled for a spontaneous breathing trial (SBT). Which finding by the nurse is most likely to result in postponing the SBT?
a. New ST segment elevation is noted on the cardiac monitor.
b. Enteral feedings are being given through an orogastric tube.
c. Scattered rhonchi are heard when auscultating breath sounds.
d. hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is being used to treat postoperative pain.

ANS: A
Myocardial ischemia is a contraindication for ventilator weaning. The ST segment elevation is an indication that weaning should be postponed until further investigation and/or treatment for myocardial ischemia can be done. Ventilator weaning can proceed when opioids are used for pain management, abnormal lung sounds are present, or enteral feedings are being used.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

Which of the following is the most common cause of ARDS quizlet?

The most common cause of ARDS is sepsis, a serious and widespread infection of the bloodstream. Inhalation of harmful substances.

Which is the most important intervention for the patient with ARDS?

The most common treatment for ARDS is oxygen therapy. This involves delivering extra oxygen to patients, through a mask, nasal cannula (two small tubes that enter the nose), or a tube inserted directly into the windpipe. Ventilator support: All patients with ARDS need oxygen therapy, as noted above.

What is the goal of nursing care for a patient who has ARDS?

The goal of care for ARDS patients is to maximize perfusion in the pulmonary capillary system by increasing oxygen transport between the alveoli and pulmonary capillaries. To achieve the goal, you need to increase fluid volume without overloading the patient.

What are the most common early clinical manifestations of ARDS?

The first symptom of ARDS is usually shortness of breath. Other symptoms of ARDS are low blood oxygen, rapid breathing, and clicking, bubbling, or rattling sounds in the lungs when breathing. ARDS can develop at any age.