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Terms in this set (586)What is another term for the AP axial projection taken during a barium enema procedure? B Which laxative is classified as a saline type? A Which of the following conditions may lead to an adynamic ileus? C Situation: An infant is brought to the ED with a
possible intussusception. Which of the following procedures may actually correct this condition? D Which part of the small intestine has the largest diameter? Duodenum In which abdominal quadrant is the duodenum located? Right Upper At what stage of respiration should the enema tip be inserted into the rectum? 4 True or False: During a colostomy barium enema, a double-contrast retention enema tip is used. False Which part of the small intestine has a feathery appearance when filled with barium? Jejunum A prolapse of the rectum may be diagnosed by a(n): 4 Which part of the small intestine makes up three fifths of its entirety? Ileum Which of the following barium enema projections and/or positions provides the greatest amount of gonadal dosage to both male and female patients? 2 Which of the following positions best demonstrates
the left colic flexure? 4 Which specific aspect of the large intestine must be demonstrated during evacuative proctography? 3 The recommended water temperature for a barium sulfate mixture used for most barium enema procedures is: 85 to 90 °F The average time to scan the large intestine during a computed tomography colonography is: 10 minutes Why is oral contrast media sometimes given during computed tomography colonography? 2 Which portion of the small bowel is characterized by a feathery appearance? Jejunum True or False: The circular staircase, or herringbone pattern, is a common radiographic sign for a mechanical ileus. True During the initial enema tip insertion, the tip is aimed: Toward the umbilicus Prior to having a small bowel series, the patient should remain NPO for: 8 hours Situation: During a double-contrast BE procedure the radiologist suspects a polyp in the descending colon. Which position would best demonstrate this? Right Lateral Decubitus The approximate uncoiled length (in feet) of the small intestine is: 20-23 The most distal portion of the colon is the: Sigmoid Which of the following pathologic conditions is best demonstrated with
evacuative proctography? 3 The correct order of the segments of the colon, beginning with the cecum, is: Ascending, hepatic flexure, transverse, splenic flexure, descending, sigmoid Which part of the colon has the greatest amount of potential movement? Transverse During a single-contrast barium enema, the radiologist detects a possible defect within the right colic flexure. Which of the following projections and/or positions best demonstrates this region of the colon? LPO True or False: Evacuative proctography is most commonly performed on geriatric patients. False True or False: For an average adult, the amount of barium ingested is one 16-ounce cup for a small bowel only series. False Which of the following conditions may produce the "cobblestone" or "string" sign? 2 Situation: A patient comes to radiology for a double-contrast barium enema. The patient cannot lie on her side during the study. Which of the following projections could replace the lateral rectum projection? 3 A twisting of a portion of the intestine
upon its own mesentery is termed: 3 The "tapered," or "corkscrew," radiographic sign is often seen with: 3 Which one of the following imaging modalities and/or procedures
is very effective in detecting the Meckel diverticulum? 4 The term describing a double-contrast small bowel procedure is: 3 What is the recommended kV range for an iodinated, water-soluble barium enema study? 80-90 kvp Which radiographic sign is frequently seen with adenocarcinoma of the large intestine? 3 Which sections of the large intestine will most likely be
filled with air with the patient in the prone position during a double-contrast barium enema? 1 The average length of time (in hours) it takes barium sulfate to reach the ileocecal valve after entering the stomach is: 2-3 Which imaging modality can demonstrate abscesses in the retroperitoneum? 1 Why is the PA rather than the AP recommended for a small bowel series? 4 A telescoping, or invagination, of one part of the intestine into another is termed: 3 True or False: Overhead, radiographic projections are often not taken when using digital fluoroscopy. True True or False: The height of the enema bag should not exceed 36 inches (91 cm) above the radiographic table at the beginning of the study. True A properly positioned LAO for the large intestine will demonstrate the: 4 Which of the following is classified as an irritant laxative? 3 Situation: A radiograph of an AP barium enema projection reveals poor visualization of the sigmoid due to excessive superimposition of the sigmoid colon
and rectum. How can this area be better visualized on the repeat exposure? 1 Which part of the small intestine is the shortest? Duodenum Which of the following statements is not true in regard to a pediatric small bowel series? 1 Which
of the following conditions would contraindicate the use of a cathartic before a barium enema? 3 Situation: A patient comes to radiology for a barium enema. He has a possible fistula extending from the rectum to the urinary bladder. Which one of the following projections and/or positions would best demonstrate the fistula? ... True or False: The sigmoid colon and upper rectum are infraperitoneal structures. False How much CR angulation is required for the AP axial projection? 30° to 40° Adenocarcinoma: D Which of the following structures is NOT considered part of the colon? Rectum Which part of the large intestine is located between the rectum and the descending colon? Sigmoid colon The ascending colon and upper rectum are intraperitoneal structures False The "tapered" or "corkscrew" radiographic sign is often seen with: Volvulus At what stage of respiration should the enema tip be inserted into the rectum? Suspend expiration During a double-contrast BE, the radiologist suspects a polyp in the ascending colon. Which position would best demonstrate this? Left lateral decubitis A patient comes to radiology for a BE. He has a possible fistula extending
from the rectum to the urinary bladder. Which one of the following projections and/or positions would best demonstrate the fistula? Lateral rectum position A patient comes to radiology with possible diverticulosis. Which of the following studies is most diagnostic for detecting this condition? Double contrast BE Which of the following is a severe inflammation of the colon and rectum with loss mucosal lining? Ulcerative colitis During a
single contrast BE, the radiologist detects a possible defect within the left colic flexure. Which of the following projections and/or positions best demonstrates this region of the colon? LAO While attempting to insert an enema tip into the rectum, the technologist experiences resistance. What should be the next step taken by the technologist? Have the radiologist insert it using fluoroscopic guidance What is the classification of barium sulfate as a contrast media? Radiopaque What is a potential risk associated with the use of water-soluble contrast agents, especially for geriatric patients? Dehydration Which of the following conditions is characterized by pouch-like herniations oft he colonic wall? Diverticula What part of the small intestine has the largest diameter? Duodenum The opening between the small intestine and the large intestine is called the: Ileocecal valve The CR angulation for the AP axial projection of the large intestine is: 30-40 degrees cephalic How far is the enema tip inserted into the rectum for a colon examination? No more than 4" The ascending portion of the colon joins the transverse colon at the: Right colic (hepatic) flexure An enlarged rectal vein is called a: Hemorrhoid Which of the following liquids is NOT appropriate for patients on a liquid diet in preparation Chocolate milk Which sections of the large intestine will most likely
be filled with barium with the patient in the prone position during a double-contrast BE Transverse and sigmoid colon Which of the following describes a bowel obstruction caused by immobility of the bowel: Adynamic ileus Which of the following BE projections and/or positions provides the greatest amount of gonadal dosage to both male and female patients Lateral rectum Which of the following
procedures best demonstrates a rectocele? Evacuative proctography Patients who require priority scheduling for studies that require fasting are: emergencies, infants & small children, diabetic patients, and geriatric patients True Which radiographic sign is frequently seen with intussusception? Mushroom shaped dialation Why is the PA rather than the AP projection recommended for a small bowel series? Better separation of loops of small intestine How long is the small bowel? 15-18 ft How long is the large intestine? 5 ft Characteristics of the Duodenum Shortest/Widest/Most fixed portion Quadrants of the Duodenum RUQ/LUQ Is appendicitis more common in men or women? 1.5% more common in men What are the four parts of the colon? 1. ascending
colon What level does the rectum start? S3 most common tumors of the small bowel carcinoid tumors What is the ideal kV range for a double contrast barium enema? 90-100 kv What modality is the best in detecting Meckel's diverticulum? Nuc Med What type of enema tip should be used for a barium enema on an infant? 10 Fr, flexible silicon catheter What is the term for the three bands of muscle that pull the large intestine into pouches? Taenia coli The tip of the catheter is advanced to the _______ during an enteroclysis. duodenojejunal junction (ligament of Treitz) What projection would best demonstrate a fistula extending from the rectum to the urinary bladder? lateral rectum During a double contrast barium enema, the radiologist suspects a polyp in the descending colon. Which position would best demonstrate this? Right lateral decubitus A patient comes into radiology for a single contrast barium enema. The patient cannot lie on their side during the study. Which projection could replace the lateral rectum? Ventral decubitus
A twisting of the intestine on its own mesentery is termed: Volvulus A radiograph of an AP barium projection reveals poor visualization of the sigmoid due to excessive superimposition of the sigmoid colon and rectum. How can this area be better visualized on the repeat exposure? Angle the CR 30-40 degrees cephalic with AP
Central ray for a one hour small bowel radiograph at the iliac crest Why is it important for the technologist to review the patient's chart and inform the radiologist before beginning the barium enema examination if a biopsy was performed as a part of a prior sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy procedure? The biopsy of the colon may weaken that portion of the colon, which would lead to perforation What is the highest/most superior portion of the large intestine? left colic flexure Rotation for abdominal oblique projections 35-45 degrees CR RAO/LAO CR perp @ 1 inch lateral from medial to side up from table RAO: Anatomy demonstrated Right colic flexure/sigmoid/ascending colon seen without superimposition LAO: Anatomy demonstrated Left colic flexure/descending colon seen without superimposition RPO/LPO CR CR perp at iliac crest about 1 inch lateral to elevated side Lateral rectum CR CR perp at level of ASIS Colitis inflammation of the colon Ulcerative colitis chronic inflammation of the colon with presence of ulcers Intussusception telescoping of the intestines neoplasm Abnormal growth Polyps Barium filled saclike inward projections Volvulus twisting
of the intestine on itself Which imaging modality can demonstrate abscesses in the retroperitoneum? MRI While attempting to insert an enema tip into the rectum, the technologist experiences resistance. What should be the next step taken by the technologist? Have the radiologist insert it using fluoroscopic guidance Why is oral contrast media sometimes given during computed tomography colonography? To mark or "tag" possible fecal matter T/F Rectal retention enema tips should be fully inflated by the technologist before beginning a barium enema False
T/F The enteroclysis procedure is indicated for patients with regional enteritis false The types of digestive movement characteristic of the large intestine include: 2,3,4 T/F Ultrasound, with graded compression, can be used in diagnosing acute appendicitis. true Plicae circulares mucosal folds which increase the surface area in the small bowel to aid in absorption of nutrients T/F The terms large intestine and colon are synonymous false The sternal extremity is the __________ end of the clavicle medial Difference between male and female clavicle female is shorter and less curved What is the anterior surface of the scapula called? Costal surface Structures of the proximal humerus greater and less tubercle, intertubercular sulcus, anatomical and surgical neck, head Where is the sub scapular fossa located? Within the anterior surface of the scapula Where is the deltoid tuberosity located? anterolateral surface of the humeral insertion The scapulohumeral has a _____ type of movement Ball and Socket The internal rotation of the humerus will result in a _______ position of the proximal humerus Lateral Positioning : The internal projection of the shoulder and proximal humerus is created by.. Placing back of affected palm against the thigh A medial CR angle of 25-30 degrees is required for the ________ projection Lawrence/Transaxillary/InfSup Axial shoulder How is a possible Hill-Sachs defect best demonstrated? Inferior Superior Axial Shoulder with exaggerated external rotation of affected arm What does the Grashey method demonstrate? Open glenoid fossa in profile What ionization chambers for the AEC should be used for a tangential projection for the intertubercular groove? AEC should not be used, it is tabletop What type of breathing technique should be used for AP scapula? Orthostatic breathing What is the CR for a trans thoracic proximal humerus projection? Level of the surgical neck The lateral scapula projection requires the patient to be rotated ____ degrees towards the IR for a PA position. 45-60 degrees What projection demonstrates the Lesser tubercle in profile? AP shoulder with internal rotation The internal AP shoulder projection demonstrates the _______________ in profile medially Lesser tubercle The __________ rotation AP shoulder projection demonstrates the greater tubercle profiled laterally external
How should weights be places for the AC joint weight bearing studies? attached to the wrists What is the garth method used for? Apical Oblique trauma for possible fx What projection does the anterior and posterior rims of the glenoid cavity need to be superimposed? AP Oblique/Grashey If the anterior and posterior rims of the glenoid cavity are not superimposed... what should the radiographer to do correct this? Increase rotation of the thorax How much clavicle should be included on an AP/AP axial projection Acromial end to sternal end What projection of the scapula should the vertebral and axillary borders be superimposed? Scapular Y Lateral What projection should be performed to demonstrate a subscromial spur? PA scapular Y lateral with 10-15 degree caudal angle What is the SID for an AC joint projection? 72 inches What dislocation of the shoulder occurs more frequently? Anterior What projection best demonstrates a Bankart lesion? Grashey What does the Neer method demonstrate? coracoacromial arch When a patient presents with osteoarthritis or osteoporosis, what should happen to your exposure factors? Decrease When performing an AP axial projection of the clavicle on an asthenic patient, What should your angulation be? 30 degrees cranial CR for AC joints 1 inch above the jugular notch Subacromial spurring is a common radiographic sign of ??? Impingment syndrome of the shoulder What projection should be utilized to demonstrate the intertubercular groove? Tangential/Fisk Where does shoulder radiography produce a significant dose to? Breast and thyroid What should the radiographer do when a patient cannot raise their unaffected arm over their head for a transthoracic projection? Angle CR 10-15 degrees cephalad What positioning rotation should be performed for a patient that presents with a proximal fx of the humerus? AP and transthoracic lateral What AC projection requires a 15 degree cephalic angle? Alexander What is the Alexander method projection performed for? Possible AC joint dislocation What AP projection of the shoulder are the epicondyles located 45 degrees to the IR? Neutral What AP projection of the shoulder is the greater tubercle located anterior and the lesser tubercle is medial (in profile)? Internal What is the CR for an AP shoulder? 1 inch inferior to coracoid process What three parts make the Y in a Scapular Y? Acromion process, coracoid process, inferior angle How can you tell the difference between a Scapular Y and Lateral scapula? Lateral Scapula= arm over chest What is the CR for an AP scapula? 2 inches inferior to coracoid process, 2 inches medial to axillary border What is the CR for the Lawrence method? 25-30 degrees to Axilla What type of movement is are the AC and SC joints? Plane/gliding What is another term for the mid area of the costal surface of the scapula? Subscapular fossa What projection of the shoulder is the lesser tubercle profiled medially? Internal rotation What projection is the greater tubercle profiled laterally? External rotation What is the main pathology that is being looked at for the inter tubercular groove projections? Calcium deposits What is the CR for a supine inter tubercular groove projection? CR 15-20 degree posterior to humerus CR for scapular Y lateral Cr proximal to humerus, 2 inches below top of shoulder True or false: The Hill-Sachs defect is a fracture of the articular surface of the glenoid cavity. False Which rotation of the humerus will result in a lateral position of the proximal humerus? Internal rotation (epicondyles perpendicular to image receptor) A
patient enters the ED with a possible bony defect of the midwing area of the scapula. The patient is able to stand and move the upper limb freely. In addition to the routine AP scapula projection with the arm abducted, which of the following would best demonstrate the involved area? Have the patient drop the affected arm behind him or her and take a lateral scapula projection. A patient enters the ED with multiple injuries. The physician is concerned about a dislocation of the left proximal humerus. The patient is unable to stand. Which of the following
routines is advisable to best demonstrate this condition? Correct AP shoulder and recumbent AP oblique (scapular Y) projection True or false: The affected arm should not be abducted for an AP scapula projection. False Where is the CR centered for a transthoracic lateral projection for proximal humerus? Level of surgical neck A radiograph of a transthoracic lateral projection reveals
that it is difficult to visualize the proximal humerus due to the ribs and lung markings. The following analog exposure factors were used: 75 kV, 30 mAs, 40-inch (102 cm) SID, grid, and suspended respiration. Which of the following changes will improve the visibility of the proximal humerus? Use an orthostatic (breathing) technique. The anterior surface of the scapula is referred to as the: Costal surface Which of the following shoulder positions is considered a trauma projection (can be performed safely for a possible fracture
or dislocation of the proximal humerus)? AP apical oblique axial (Garth method) projection Which of the following AP shoulder projections demonstrates the greater tubercle in profile medially? None of these A patient enters the ED with a midshaft humeral fracture. The AP projection taken on the cart demonstrates another fracture near the surgical neck of the humerus. The patient is unable to stand or rotate the humerus because of the extent of the trauma. What other projection should be taken for this patient? Horizontal beam transthoracic lateral projection for humerus Which of the following AP shoulder projections demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially? Internal rotation A patient enters the ED with a possible AC joint separation. The patient is paraplegic; therefore, the study cannot be done erect. Which of the following routines would be performed to diagnose this condition? Non-weight-bearing and weight-bearing types of projections performed with the patient recumbent by pulling down on the shoulders Which AP projection of the shoulder and proximal humerus is created by placing the
affected palm of the hand facing inward toward the thigh? Neutral rotation Which of the following projections can be performed using an orthostatic (breathing) technique? AP scapula Which alternative landmark can be palpated if unable to locate the coracoid process for the shoulder projection for the obese shoulder? AC joint A radiograph of an AP axial projection of the clavicle demonstrates that the clavicle is within the
midaspect of the lung apices. What should the technologist do to correct this error? Increase the cephalic CR angle during repeat exposure. True or False: All of the joints of the shoulder girdle are diarthrodial. True True or False: A radiograph of the inferosuperior axial projection (Lawrence method) demonstrates the acromion process of the shoulder to be located most superiorly (anteriorly). False What medial central ray (CR) angle is required for the inferosuperior axial shoulder (Lawrence
method)? 25° to 30° Which of the following best demonstrates the coracoacromial arch? Neer method Where is the CR centered for the bilateral acromioclavicular (AC) joint projection on
a single 35 x 43 cm (14 x 17 inch) image receptor? 1 inch (2.5 cm) above the jugular notch How much CR angulation is required for an asthenic patient for an AP axial projection of the clavicle? 30° Which projection of the shoulder requires that the patient be rotated 45° to 60° toward the IR from a PA position? Lateral scapula projection Another term for osteoarthritis is: degenerative joint disease Which of the following joints is considered to have a ball and socket (spheroidal) type of movement? Scapulohumeral joint A patient enters the ED with multiple injuries including a possible fracture of the left proximal humerus. Which positioning rotation should be performed to determine the extent of the humerus injury? AP and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral shoulder projection True or false: Sonography is effective in the dynamic evaluation of the shoulder joint. True True or false: For AC joint weight-bearing studies, patients should not be asked to hold on to the weights with their hands; rather, the weights should be attached to the wrists. True A radiograph of an AP clavicle reveals that the sternal extremity is partially collimated off. What should the technologist do? Repeat the AP projection and correct collimation. True or false: A posterior dislocation of the shoulder occurs more frequently than an anterior dislocation. False Which of the following modalities best demonstrates shoulder joint pathology
such as rotator cuff tears using dynamic evaluation techniques during joint movements? Ultrsound Which of the following shoulder projections best demonstrates the glenoid cavity in profile? Grashey method What is the name of the large fossa found within the anterior surface of the scapula? Subscapular fossa A radiograph for an AP projection with external rotation of the proximal humerus reveals that the greater tubercle is profiled
laterally. What should be changed to improve this image for a repeat exposure? Positioning is acceptable; do not repeat it. Which of the
following structures is not part of the proximal humerus? Glenoid process True or False: For an AP oblique (Grashey method) projection of the shoulder, the CR is centered to the acromion. False The AP humerus requires that the humeral
epicondyles are _____ to the IR. Parallel How much CR angulation should be used for a PA oblique (scapular Y) projection? No CR angle is required. A patient comes to
radiology for treatment of an arthritic condition of the right shoulder. The radiologist orders AP internal/external rotation projections and an inferosuperior axial projection of the scapulohumeral joint. However, the patient cannot abduct the arm for this projection. Which other projection will best demonstrate the scapulohumeral joint space? AP oblique (Grashey method) True or false: The use of a grid during shoulder radiography will result in higher patient dose over nongrid procedures. True A patient comes to the emergency department (ED) with a possible right AC joint separation. Right clavicle and AC joint examinations are ordered. The clavicle is taken first, and a small linear fracture of the
midshaft of the clavicle is discovered. What should the technologist do in this situation? Consult with the ED physician before continuing with the AC joint study What is a possible radiographic sign for impingement syndrome of the shoulder? Bone spurring in acromiohumeral space What is the common term for idiopathic chronic
adhesive capsulitis? Frozen shoulder Where is the CR centered for the AP oblique (Grashey method) position for the glenoid cavity? 2 inches (5 cm) medial and inferior to the superolateral border of shoulder What type of compensating filter is recommended for an AP shoulder projection? Boomerang Which term describes the medial end of the clavicle? Sternal extremity A radiograph of a PA oblique (scapular Y) lateral position reveals that the scapula is slightly rotated (the vertebral and axillary borders are not superimposed). The axillary border of the scapula is determined to be more lateral compared with the vertebral border. Which of the following modifications should be made for the repeat exposure? Decrease rotation of thorax True or false: An orthostatic (breathing) technique can be performed for the AP projection of the scapula. True A patient enters the ED with a dislocated shoulder. The technologist attempts to
position the patient into the transthoracic lateral projection, but the patient is unable to raise the unaffected arm over his head completely. What can the technologist do to compensate for the patient's inability to raise his arm completely? Use a breathing technique. True or False: The female clavicle is usually shorter and less curved than that of the male. True What is the name of the insertion point for the deltoid muscle located on the anterolateral surface of the humerus? Deltoid tuberosity True or false? The recommended SID for AP AC joint study is 72 inches (~183cm). True A radiograph of an AP oblique (Grashey method) projection for the glenoid cavity reveals that the anterior and posterior rims of the glenoid process are not superimposed. Which of the following modifications should produce a more acceptable image? Increase rotation of the body toward the IR. A referring physician suspects that a subacromial spur may be the cause for a patient's shoulder impingement. She asks the technologist for a projection that would best demonstrate any possible spurs in the suprasinatus outlet. Which of the
following projections would accomplish this objective? Tangential projection with 10° to 15° caudad angle What additional maneuver must be added to the inferosuperior axial shoulder (Lawrence method)
projection to best demonstrate a possible Hill-Sachs defect? Perform exaggerated external rotation of the affected upper limb. Which view and projection of
the proximal humerus is represented in the figure? External rotation, anteroposterior (AP) projection CR Bilateral AP Frog Leg CR 3 inches inferior to level of ASIS
CR Axial Outlet Projection males- 20-35 degrees towards head CR Axial inlet projection CR 40 degrees caudal at level of ASIS Metastatic carcinoma Malignancy spread to bone via the circulatory, lymphatic systems, or direct invasion ankylosing spondylitis a form of rheumatoid arthritis that produces calcifications of the longitudinal ligament of spinal column When patient presents with osteoarthritis, how should your technique move? Should be lowered Pelvic ring fractures fx resulting from severe blow to one side of pelvis What projection should be performed with a patient that presents with a pelvic ring fx? inlet and outlet projections Depression on the head of femur where a ligament attaches the head into the acetabulum fovea capitis How do you get a true AP on hip projections Turn leg in 15-20 degrees Function of the obturator foramen passage for nerves and blood vessels for the lower leg True/False pelvis true- birth canal
metastatic cancer What disease does this patient present with? What is a natural landmark for the femoral neck? Inguinal crease Sacroiliac joint classification/mobility type synovial/amphiarthroidal hip joint classification/mobility type synovial/diarthroidal symphysis pubis joint classification/joint type cartilaginous/limited Union of acetabulum joint classification/joint type cartilaginous/synarthroidal How do you position a patient to get the lesser trochanters of the femur in profile? Heels together, toes apart What is the largest bone of the pelvic girdle? Ilium What bony landmark is located posterior to the acetabulum? Ischial tuberosity T/F... The "false pelvis" forms the birth canal in the females false Which body landmark should not be visible on a correctly positioned non trauma AP pelvis? Lesser trochanters How much rotation of the toes is there on an AP distal femur projection? 5 degrees internally How much do you flex the knee for a lateral projection of femur? 45 degrees What is the first projection when dealing with a trauma hip/femur? AP pelvis How much do you rotate limbs internally for a trauma AP pelvis/hip? None. You do not rotate limbs until you are sure there are not fractures What is another name for the "frog leg" AP projection? Wiggins How much should you abduct the leg for the frog leg projection and why? 20-30 degrees for less distortion of the femoral neck How does the greater trochanter appear in the frog leg projection? greater trochanter is superimposed over the femoral neck What are the other names of the AP axial outlet projection? Taylor method & Uptilt How should the CR be angled for an axial outlet projection of a male? 20-35 degrees towards head How should the CR be angled for an axial outlet projection of a female? 30 to 45 degrees towards head How is the pelvis going to present in an AP axial outlet projection? pubic and ischial bones are elongated and magnified How is the pelvis going to present in an AP axial inlet projection? sigmoid colon straightened, ischial spines demonstrated Legg-Clave-Perthes disease usually involves: Males between 5-10 Years of age to minimize distortion of the femoral neck for an AP bilateral frog-leg projection, the lower limbs should be abducted: 20-30 degrees What projection is best suited for the patient with limited movement of both lower limbs to demonstrate a lateral perspective of the proximal femur? Clements-nakayama method How is the cassette aligned for an axiolateral (Danelius-Miller method) projection? Parallel to femoral neck important joints of the lower limb hip joint 4 parts of the femur head angle of the femur neck to shaft on average adult 125 degrees
what is the degree of the longitudinal plane of the femur on an average adult? 10 degrees from vertical angle of the femur head and neck in relation to the body? 15-20 degrees why is the the angle of the femur head important? since the head is projected more anteriorly, to gain a true AP projection the lower legs must be rotated 15-20 internally to place the femoral neck parallel to the IR what connects the vertebral column and the lower limbs? pelvis 4 bones of the pelvis ilium innominate bones
ilium, ischium, pubis lumbosacral joint L5-S1 sacroiliac joints where the right and left iliac bones articulate posteriorly with the sacrum 3 divisions of the hip bones ilium, ischium, pubis The 2 important positioning landmarks of the ilium? ASIS What is the ischium divided into? body and ramus largest foramen in the body obturator foramen what bones make of the acetabulum? ilium what bones make up the obuturator foreman? ilium greater (false) pelvis above pelvic brim lesser (true) pelvis Below pelvic brim what does the true pelvis form? birth canal inlet of true pelvis outlet of true pelvis female vs male pelvis Female: wider, 80-85 degree pubis arch Female pelvis X-ray Male pelvis X-ray classification of sacroiliac joint? synovial /ampiarthrodial AP Hip (Unilateral) CR 4 inches from ASIS, 2 inches medial (perpendicular to femoral neck) What should be in profile for an AP Hip projection? greater trochanter, femoral neck Axiolateral Inferosuperior Projection-Trauma Danelius-Miller Method Dani-Miller CR perpendicular to femoral neck (mid femur) Modified Cleaves Method-Hip & Proximal Femur Unilateral Frog-leg Projection (Mediolateral) Frog-leg CR 4in down from ASIS, 2 in medial (into crease) what projection would you use if affected hip can not be moved and a lateral view is needed for a fracture? Danelius-Miller what projection would you use to get a lateral view of the hip joint for a non-traumatic injury? Modified cleaves method Modified Axiolateral Inferiorsuperior-Possible trauma Clements-Nakayama Method Clements-Nakayama Patient supine with affected side near edge of table. Legs fully extended, neutral position what projection would you use for a possible hip fracture when the patient has liminted movement? Modified Axiolateral Inferiorsuperior AP Pelvis (Bilateral Hips) CR 2 in below ASIS, centered in middle AP Bilateral Frog-Leg Projection-Pelvis Modified Cleaves Method What projection would you use to look for dysplasis of the hip (congenital hip dislocation)? Ap bilateral frog-leg bilateral frog-leg CR centered 3 in below ASIS, middle AP Axial Inlet Projection Staunig method what projection is used to look for posterior displacement of the pelvis? (inward/outward rotation of anterior pelvis) AP axial inlet Inlet pelvis Patient supine AP Axial Outlet Projection Taylor Method what projection is used to view the bilateral pubis and ischium? Taylor method- outlet pelvis Outlet pelvis Patient supine why do you have to angle more for females on an AP outlet projection of the pelvis? the pubic arch on females is greater than males posterior oblique projection-pelvis (acetabulum) Judet Method Judet method Patient semisupine imaginary plane that divides the pelvic region into the greater and lesser pelvis? pelvic brim hip joint classification snyovial sacroiliac joint classification synovial symphysis pubis classification cartilaginous Acetabulum classification cartilaginous what is an indicator of hip fracture? external rotation of the foot if hip trauma is suspected what should you do before rotating the patient? take AP pelvis
what must be included on an AP and lateral femur? knee and hip joint if the left iliac wing appears elongated on an AP pelvis image what positioning error has occurred? left side is rotated toward the IR what degree are the femurs abducted for a bilateral frog leg projection? 40-45 what is the angle of the CR for a female AP axial-outlet (Taylor Method) projection? 30-45 what best demonstrates anterior pelvic bone fractures? posterior oblique pelvis (Judet method) how much is the body obliqued for Judet Method? 45 degrees how do you angle the CR for Clements-Nakayama Method? 15-20 posterior for horizontal what projection would you use to assess trauma to pubic and ischial structures? Taylor method what projection demonstrates anterior and posterior rims of the acetabulum and ilioischial and iliopubic columns? Judet method what degree of hip abduction is used on the unilateral frog leg? 20-30 from vertical if the lesser trochaters are clearly seen on an AP pelvis what is the positioning error? feet need rotated 15-20 degrees internally on an AP pelvis the right iliac wing is forshortened, what is the error? patient is in an LPO position, right side is further from the IR Ankylosing Spondylitis Begins with fusion of SI joints and follows with extensive calcification of anterior longitudinal ligament of spinal coloumn. End result is a radiographic characteristic called "bamboo spine" males mostly affected. Avulsion (evulsion) Fractures of the Pelvis difficult to diagnose if not imaged properly. usually occurs in adolescent athletes Chondrosarcoma A malignant tumor of the cartilage usually occurs in pelvis and long bones of men 45+ may be removed surgically if not responsive to radiation or chemotherapy. Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH) aka congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH) caused by conditions present at birth and may require frequent hip radiographs. Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease most common type of aseptic or ischemic necrosis. lesions usually involve 1 hip (head or neck of femur) usually ocurs in boy 5-10yrs. limp is usually first clinical sign presents radiographically as a flattened femoral head (may appear fragmented) Metastatic Carcinoma malignancy spread to bone by the circulatory of lymphatic system. metastatic tumors are more common than primary malignancies. most commonly presents in red bone marrow sites such as spine, skull, ribs, pelvis, and femora Osteoarthritis (Degenerative Joint Disease DJD) normal part of aging process. joint cartilage and adjacent bone degenerate, causing pain and stiffness. new growths of bone and cartilage are evident (osteophytes) Pelvic Ring Fractures the nature of a closed ring pelvis is such that, a severe blow or trauma to one side of pelvis can result in a fracture site opposite the side of trauma, requiring a radiographic visualization of entire pelvis. Proximal Femur (Hip) Fractures most common in geriatric patients w/ osteoporosis or avascular necrosis (loss of blood circulation causing cell death) leads to weakening or collapse of weight bearing joints such as the hip and occur w/ only minimal trauma. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE) occurs during rapid growth, typical of 10-16 year olds where minor trauma can precipitate development. epiphysis appears shorter and the epiphyseal plate wider w/ smaller margins Sacroiliac joint classification synovial Symphysis pubis classification cartilaginous Union of acetabulum classification cartilaginous Hip joint classification Synovial Movements of the hip joint flexion/extension CR AP Pelvis CR perp midway between ASIS and the symph pubis. About two inches inferior to level of ASIS AP Bilateral Frog Leg Pelvis (Modified Cleaves) CR CR Perp at 3 inches below level of ASIS AP Bilateral Frog Leg Pelvis Positioning Flex knees 90 degrees and abduct femora 40-45 from vertical AP Axial Outlet Projection: Taylor Method CR CR angled 20-35 degrees cephalic for males AP Axial Inlet Projection CR CR angled 40 degrees caudal @ level of ASIS What are they looking at on an AP Axial Inlet Projection? Ischial spines PA Axial Oblique Projection (teufel) CR and position Patient PA in 35-40 anterior oblique (looking at downside anatomy) AP Unilateral Hip CR CR @ femoral neck, about 1-2 inches medial and 3-4 inches distal to ASIS
TRAUMA axiolateral inferosuperior projection: Danelius miller CR @ perpendictular to femoral neck and IR (T or F) An AP pelvis projection using 90 kV and 8 mAs results in less patient dose than a projection using 80 kV and 12 mAs ( for both males and females) true A radiograph of an AP pelvis projection reveals that the lesser trochanters are readily demonstrated on the medial side of the proximal femurs. The patient is ambulatory but has a history of early osteoarthritis in both hips. Which positioning modification needs to be made to prevent this positioning error? Rotate the lower limbs 15-20 degrees internally to place the proximal femurs in a true AP position What does KUB stand for? kidneys, ureters, bladder What allows kidneys to be seen on an xray? The fat capsules surrounding them Difference between 2 way and 3 way abdomen? 3 way includes a chest X-ray to look for free air under the diaphragm when is a small bowel study complete? When contrast reaches the Ileocecal valve Abdominal muscle locates near lumbar vertebral column Psoas major muscle Reasons to do an acute abdominal series 1. peritoneal air How long is the small bowel? 15-18 ft parts of the small intestine in descending order 1. duodenum What quadrant is the liver located in? RUQ (right upper quadrant) What is cholelithiasis? stones in the gallbladder Liver in relation to the peritoneal cavity Intraperitoneal Gallbladder in relation to the peritoneal cavity intraperitoneal Spleen in relation to the peritoneal cavity intraperitoneal stomach in relation to the peritoneal cavity
intraperitoneal jejunum in relation to the peritoneal cavity intraperitoneal ileum in relation to the peritoneal cavity intraperitoneal Cecum in relation to the peritoneal cavity intraperitoneal transverse colon in relation to the peritoneal cavity intraperitoneal sigmoid colon in relation to the peritoneal cavity intraperitoneal Where is the CR located for a left lateral decubitus abdomen? 2 inches above the iliac crest which projection would best demonstrate an umbilical hernia? lateral kV range for a KUB of an adult 80 kVp at 40 mAs How should a KUB prone or supine be evaluated for rotation? Rotation of the iliac crests How should the radiographer correct the centering for an image of the supine abdomen that reveals the obturator foramen has been cut? Cr is too high, bring the bottom of the IR to the level of the greater trochanter What is the difference between a PA and AP abdomen? Iliac wings are flipped Three clinical indications for an acute abdominal series bowel obstructions, ascites, pnemoperitoneum, chrones disease, volvulus, paralytic ileus An image of an AP abdomen demonstrates elongation of the right iliac wing, how should this be corrected? Patient Is rotated too much Which projection will best demonstrate an abdominal aortic aneurysm? Dorsal decubitus What is the most common abdominal radiograph? AP supine often called the KUB (kidneys, ureters, and bladder) Plain radiographs are taken without the use of what? contrast Acute abdominal series may show what? bowel obstruction air outside the digestive tract intraperitoneal air how many radiographs are taken on an acute abdominal series? 2 or 3 What 3 muscles are the most important in abdominal radiography diaphragm, and 2 Psoas majors What 2 muscles should be faintly visible on an abdominal radiograph? The lateral borders of the 2 Psoas majors What are the accessory organs for the digestive system? Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreas Where is the esophagus located? Mediastinum of the thoracic cavity What are the tree digestive organs within the abdominal cavity? Stomach, small intestines, and large intestines What is the expandable reservoir for swallowed food and fluids? Stomach What is the entire digestive system called? Gastrointestinal (GI) tract Where does the GI tract start? Stomach What are the 3 parts of the small intestine? Duodenum, Jejunum, and Ileum How long is the small intestine? 4.5-5.5 m (15-18 feet) What is the first portion of the small intestine? Duodenum What is the shortest but widest of the three segments of the small intestine? Duodenum What is the proximal portion of the duodenum called? Duodenal bulb or cap What ducts empty into the Duodenum? Liver, gallbladder, and pancreas What is the first 2/5 after the Duodenum called? Jejunum What are the distal 3/5 of the small intestine called? Ileum What connects the Ileum to the large intestine? Ileocecal valve Should you see air filling the entire stomach or small intestine on a healthy adult? No What quadrant does the large intestine begin in? right lower quadrant (RLQ) What is the portion of the large intestine below the ileocecal valve called? Cecum What is attached to the posteromedial aspect of the cecum? Appendix (vermiform appendix) What is the vertical portion of the large intestine above the Cecum? Ascending colon What quadrant is the Ascending colon in? right lower quadrant (RLQ) What joins the ascending colon and and transverse colon? Right colic (hepatic) flexure What joins the transverse colon and the descending colon? Left colic (splenic) flexure What is the S-shaped section of the descending colon called? Sigmoid colon What quadrant is the Sigmoid colon in? Lower left quadrant LLQ What is the final 15 cm of the large intestine called? Rectum The rectum ends at the what? Anus What is the sphincter muscle at the terminal opening of the large intestine? Anus Is the location of the large intestine the same in a hypersthenic type and a hyposthenic type? No Where would the transverse colon be on a hypersthenic type? high in the abdomen Where would the transverse colon be on a hyposthenic type? low in the abdomen The spleen is part what system? Lymphatic Is the spleen located posterior or anterior in the abdominal cavity? posterior
Where is the spleen located? posterior and to the left of the stomach in the left upper quadrant (LUQ) If enlarged can the spleen be seen on a plain abdominal radiograph? Yes, faintly Where is the pancreas located? posterior to the stomach and near the posterior abdominal wall, between the duodenum and the spleen How long is the pancreas? about 12.5 cm (6 inches) What is the "romance of the abdomen" where the head of the pancreas sits in the curve of the C shape of the duodenum Is the pancreas part of the endocrine or exocrine secretion system? Both, endocrine because it secretes insulin into the bloodstream to control blood sugar levels, and exocrine because it secretes digestive juices into the duodenum. Is the lumen of the digestive tract considered internal or external? External What is the largest solid organ in the body? Liver What quadrant is the liver located in? Right upper quadrant (RUQ) Where does the liver store its bile? Gallbladder What is the pear-shaped sac located below the liver called? Gallbladder Is the gallbladder seen without contrast normally? No What are the structures of the Urinary system? 2 kidneys, 2 ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra What connects the kidneys to the urinary bladder? ureters Where is the urinary bladder located? above and behind the symphysis pubis What are the glands that sit superomedial on the kidneys? Suprarenal (adrenal) glands Where are the kidneys located? On each side of the lumbar vertebral column Which kidney sits a bit lower and why? The right, because of the large liver What is the function of the kidneys? To filter waste materials and excess water from the blood What is the radiographic examination of the urinary system performed with IV contrast medium called? Intravenous Urogram (IVU) What is the large serous, double-walled sac like membrane called? Peritoneum What are the 2 types of peritoneum called? Parietal peritoneum, and the Visceral peritoneum What is the outermost peritoneum that covers that adheres to the cavity wall? Parietal peritoneum
What is the peritoneum that covers the organ called? Visceral peritoneum What is the space or cavity between the parietal and visceral portion of the peritoneum called? Peritoneal cavity An abnormal accumulation of the serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is called what? ascites If organs are only partially covered by the visceral peritoneum and are closely attached to the posterior abdominal wall they called what? Retroperitoneal A double fold of peritoneum that loosely connects the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall Mesentery A specific type of double fold peritoneum that extends from the stomach to another organ Omentum extends superiorly from the lesser curvature of the stomach to portions of the liver Lesser omentum connects the transverse colon to the greater curvature of the stomach inferiorly Greater omentum drapes down over the small bowel then folds back on itself to form an apron along the anterior abdominal wall Greater omentum Peritoneum that attaches the colon to the posterior abdominal wall Mesocolon What are the four forms of mesocolon? Ascending, descending, transverse, and sigmoid or pelvic The major portion of the peritoneal cavity Greater sac or peritoneal cavity A smaller portion of peritoneal cavity, located posterior to the stomach Lesser sac or omentum bursa Structures closely attached to the posterior abdominal wall Retroperitoneal Are retroperitoneal structures less mobile? Yes What structures are retroperitoneal? Kidneys Organs located under or beneath the peritoneum Lower rectum, urinary bladder and reproductive organs Organs within the abdominal cavity that are partially or completely covered by some type of visceral peritoneum that are not infra or retro peritoneal Liver Tor F The lower aspect of the peritoneum is a closed sac and ends above the urinary bladder, separating the reproductive organs in the male? True Tor F the lower aspect of the peritoneum is a closed sac in the female? False, In females, the uterus, uterine tubes, and ovaries pass directly into the peritoneal cavity What level would the horizontal or transverse plane be for the four abdominal quadrants? Level of the umbilicus around L4 or L5, Iliac crest on a female Where is the vertical plane located for the four abdominal quadrants? Midsagittal plane, passing through the umbilicus and symphysis pubis What anatomy can be found in the RUQ of the abdomen? Liver What anatomy can be found in the LUQ of the abdomen? Spleen What anatomy can be found in the RLQ of the abdomen? Ascending colon What anatomy can be found in the LLQ of the abdomen? Descending colon How many regions are in the abdomen? 9 What are the 2 vertical planes of the 9 regions called? Right and left lateral planes What are the two transverse/horizontal planes called? Transpyloric and transtubercular planes What level is the transpyloric plane located? L1 What level is the transtubercular plane located? L5 Where are the right and left lateral planes of the abdominal regions located? between the midsagittal plane and each anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) What is region A called? Right hypochondriac What is region B called? Epigastric What is region C called? Left hypochondriac What is region D called? Right lateral (lumbar) What is region E called? Umbilical What is region F called? Left lateral (lumbar) What is region G called? Right inguinal (iliac) What is region H called? Pubic (hypogastric)
What is region I called? Left inguinal (iliac) What system is used for locations of anatomy by radiographers most the quadrant system or region system? The quadrant system What are topographic landmarks? bony landmarks that are easily palpated and used for locating organs not visible from the exterior How many landmarks are used for the abdomen? 7 What landmark is atT9-T10, superior margin of the abdomen Xiphoid process What landmark is at L2-L3 and is used to locate upper abdominal organs, such as the gallbladder and stomach?
Inferior costal margin What landmark is at L4-L5, and at the level of the midabdomen Iliac crest What landmark is found anteriorly and inferiorly from the iliac crest, and is used for positioning the pelvic and vertebral structures? Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) What landmark is used instead of the symphysis pubis to locate the inferior margin of the abdomen Greater trochanter What landmark corresponds to the inferior margin of the abdomen but may be embarrassing for you to touch Pubis symphysis What landmark is used to locate the lower margin of the abdomen when in the prone position, it is 1-4 cm or 1.5 inches lower than the symphysis pubis? Ischial tuberosity what breathing technique should we give for abdominal exams? Full expiration should we use gonadal shield on all patients? only males What exposure factors do we use for abdominal exams? 70-80 kVp at 40 DIR Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity of the abdomen Ascites Free air or gas in the peritoneal cavity Pneumoperitoneum Complete or nearly complete blockage of the flow of intestinal contents Dynamic or mechanical bowel obstruction most common cause of mechanically based obstruction Fibrous adhesions chronic inflammation o f the intestinal wall resulting in bowel obstruction in some patients Crohn's disease telescoping of a section of bowel into another loop, creating an obstruction Intussusception twisting of a loop of intestine, creating an obstruction Volvulus nonmechanical bowel obstruction (adynamic) Ileus chronic inflammation of the colon Ulcerative colitis What does a routine KUB exam consist of AP supine What does a routine Acute abdomen exam consist of AP supine, AP erect, and PA chest erect Where do you center for an AP supine KUB Center of IR to level of iliac crest(L4-L5) Where do you center for a PA prone abdomen Center of IR to level of iliac crest Where do you place IR on a Lateral Decubitus? Top of IR at armpit region or Center of IR 2 inches above level of iliac crest Where do you center for an erect Abdomen? Top of IR at the level of the axilla, Center of IR 2 inches above iliac crest Where do you center for a dorsal decubitus? Center of IR 2 inches above iliac crest Where do you center for a Lateral abdomen? Center IR at level of iliac crest (L4-L5) What specific clinical indications are we concerned with in an acute abdominal series 3 view Ileus: (non mech. small bowel ovstruction) how long should a patient be upright or decubitus to demonstrate potential intraperitoneal air? 5 minutes How do you not there is no rotation on a lateral position exam? superimposition of posterior ribs, and iliac wings What structure should always be included on an abdominal radiograph? Diaphragm What structures should be seen on a KUB/ outline of liver, spleen, kidneys, and air filled stomach and bowel segments and the arch of the symphysis pubis for bladder region MUST include symphysis Pubis CR of AP knee 1/2 inch distal to apex of patella Cr of lat knee 1/2 distal to medial condyle The adductor tubercle is the slightly raised area located on the posterior aspect of the ____________. Medial condyle of the femur The popliteal region is located __________. Behind the knee What serves as a pivot to increase the leverage of the quad femoris muscle? Patella What are bursae? Fluid filled sacs that lubricate and surround the joints What type of joint is the patellofemoral joint? Synovial/saddle What type of joint is the femoraltibial joint? Bicondylar What is the medical term for Runner's knee? chondromalacia patallae What is the medical term for Ricketts? Osteomalacia Ewing's sarcoma malignant growth found in the shaft of long bones What method of the knee requires the use of a special IR holding device? Merchant method Why is a PA projection of the patella preferred to an AP projection OID, patella is closer to IR For AP bilateral upright knees, how much do you rotate legs? 3-5 degrees internally How much should the CR be angled for AP bilateral knees on a thin patient? 5-10 degrees caudal How much should the CR be angled for AP bilateral knees for a normal sized patient? Perpendicular to IR When will the Rosenburg projection of the knee be ordered? Cartilage damage and degenerative diseases How is patient positioned for the Rosenburg method? Patient erect How is the CR positioned for the Rosenburg projection of the knee? CR angled 10 degrees towards feet (caudal), at midpoint between knee joints, 1/2 inch below apex of the patella How should a patient be positioned for the Camp-Coventry projection? Patient prone, flex knee 40-50 degrees How should the tube be angled for the Camp coventry projection of the knee? Tube should be parallel to lower leg, CR directed to knee joint How should a patient be positioned for the kneeling Holmblad projection? patient on all fours, CR towards knee crease, have patient lean forward 20-30 degrees How should patient be positioned for the straddling table holmblad projection? patient with knee on chair while leaning on X-ray table, CR at knee crease, have patient lean forward 20-30 degrees How should patient be positioned for the Beclere method? patient supine, knee flexed 40-45 degrees, CR perp to lower leg (40-45), 1/2 inch distal to apex of patella Difference between lateral knee and lateral patella no angulation, collimation,knee flexed 5-10 degrees What patella projection requires a special holding device? Merchant method CR of Merchant method 30 degrees from horizontal plane (to femur), mid way between patella Patient position for hughston method Patient prone, knee flexed up 50-60 degrees, can use sheet to hold leg CR of Hughston method CR angled 45 degree towards head into patella joint Settegast CR midway between patellofemoral joint, 15-20 degrees from lower leg If a patient presents with Osgood-Schlatters disease, what would the routine knee examination consist of? AP and Lat projection of affected knee The articular facets of the proximal tibia are also referred to as the Tibial plateau The articular facets slope ___* posteriorly d Why must the central ray be angles 5-7* cephalad for a lateral knee position? because the medical condyle extends lower than lateral condyle of femur The slightly raised area located on the posterolateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle is called the ______. adductor tubercle For which large muscle does the patella serve as a pivot to increase the leverage? quadriceps femoris muscle The crescent-shaped fibocartilage disks that act as shock absorbers in the knee joint are called medial and lateral menisci Gout Inherited type of arthritis that commonly affects males; uric deposits in joint spaces What is the recommended central ray angulation for an AP projection of the knee for a patient with thick thighs and buttocks (measuring greater than 24 cm) 3-5* cephalad Where is the central ray centered for an AP projection of the knee? 1/2 inch distal to apex of patella Which basic projection of a knee best demonstrates the proximal fibula free of superimposition? AP 45 degree medial oblique For the AP oblique projection of the knee, the ___ rotation best visualizes the lateral condyle of the tibia and the head and neck of the fibula medial What is the recommended central ray placement for a lateral knee position on a tall, slender male patient with a narrow pelvis (without support of the lower leg)? 5 degrees ceph How much flexion is recommended for a lateral projection of the knee? 20-30 What is the best modality to examine ligament injuries to the knee? MRI SITUATION: A projection is performed for the patellofemoral joint w/ the patient supine and the knee flexed 40. The CR is angled 30 caudad from horizontal. The cassette is resting on the lower legs supported by a special device. Which method is being described? Merchant SITUATION: A radiograph of the knee reveals the joint spaces are not equally open & the proximal fibula is superimposed over the tibia. 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ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY How would muscle contractions be affected if ATP was completely depleted in a muscle fiber? Verified answer
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY The water of a swimming pool is hypotonic to our cells. Why do we not swell and pop when we go for a swim? Verified answer
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY A student hyperventilates and is disoriented just before an exam. Is this student likely to be experiencing acidosis or alkalosis? How will the body compensate in an effort to maintain homeostasis? Verified answer
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY Explain the relevance of the structural relationship among sarcomeres, T tubules, and the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Verified answer Other Quizlet setsTEST 135 terms JoysGently Child Development Chapter 4 Voc.39 terms Nicola_A General Knowledge (VH) 252 terms Cole_Severance Question of the day20 terms jolt2121 Related questionsQUESTION When the hepatopancreatic sphincter is closed 15 answers QUESTION What is the function of the anterior superior iliac spine? 15 answers QUESTION What hormones come from the pituitary gland? 15 answers QUESTION what makes up the three layers of the uterus 9 answers Where is the hepatic flexure located in the colon?The right colic flexure or hepatic flexure (as it is next to the liver) is the sharp bend between the ascending colon and the transverse colon. The hepatic flexure lies in the right upper quadrant of the human abdomen.
Is the hepatic flexure part of the transverse colon?The right colon consists of the cecum, ascending colon, hepatic flexure and the right half of the transverse colon. The left colon consists of the left half of the transverse colon, splenic flexure, descending colon, and sigmoid. See Figure 1.
Is the hepatic flexure in the right upper quadrant?The ascending portion begins at the ileocolic valve on the right side of the abdomen and runs cranially ending at the right colic flexure (hepatic flexure). The transverse colon starts at the right colic flexure, runs transversely from right to left, and ends at the left colonic flexure (splenic flexure).
Which flexure is open in the RPO position?LAO/RPO Colon
Which of the following are correct when evaluating the positioning for the RPO/LAO Colon projection? a. The left colic (splenic) flexure and the descending portions should appear "open" without significant superimposition.
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Which of the FF position demonstrates the hepatic flexure and adjacent portion of the colon?
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