Which of the following accurately describes a significant difference between the Ottoman and Mughal empires in the early seventeenth century?

Three Muslim Empires (Fifteenth to Seventeenth Centuries)

from Part II - History

Published online by Cambridge University Press:  18 June 2019

• Chapter

Summary

This chapter analyzes how and why the Ottoman, Safavid, and Mughal empires were militarily powerful but economically uncompetitive and intellectually stagnant. It emphasizes that out of the three technologies Western Europeans used effectively – the printing press, nautical compass, and gunpowder – these three Muslim empires employed only gunpowder effectively. The chapter explains this situation by the dominance of the military and religious classes and the marginalization of the intellectual and bourgeois classes in the Muslim world. In Western Europe, by contrast, the intellectual and bourgeois classes were influential; they played crucial roles in overlapping processes of the Renaissance, the printing revolution, the Protestant Reformation, geographical discoveries, and the scientific revolution, which led to the “rise of Western Europe.” The chapter critically evaluates alternative explanations to both the decline of the Muslim world and the rise of Western Europe.

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Which of the following accurately describes a significant difference between the Ottoman and Mughal Empires in the early seventeenth century?

This is a List of Available Answers Options :

1. The Mughals practiced religious tolerance toward non-Muslim subjects, while the Ottomans did not.
2. The Ottomans ruled over people who were predominately Muslim, while the Mughals did not.
3. The Mughals used gunpowder weapons to expand their territory, while the Ottomans did not.
4. The Ottomans made Shia Islam the official state religion, while the Mughals made Buddhism the official state religion.

The best answer is B. The Ottomans ruled over people who were predominately Muslim, while the Mughals did not..

Reported from teachers around the world. The correct answer to ❝Which of the following accurately describes a significant difference between the Ottoman and Mughal Empires in the early seventeenth century?❞ question is B. The Ottomans ruled over people who were predominately Muslim, while the Mughals did not..
I Recommend you to read the next question and answer, Namely In the period 900 to 1500 C.E., the Ottomans and the Aztecs were similar in that both peoples were with very accurate answers.

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What was a major difference between the Mughal and Ottoman empires?

Which of the following is true of both the Ottoman Empire and the Mughal Empire between 1450 and 1750?

What distinguished the Mughal Empire from the Ottomans and Safavids?

Were the Ottoman and Mughal empires more similar or more different?