When you arrive at the receiving facility, the nurse asks your partner for a verbal report of the patient's condition. This is in addition to the radio report your partner gave to the hospital en route. Afterwards, you ask your partner why you must give a second verbal report and a written report to the receiving nurse. What is the best reason to provide both reports?The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) requires ambulance services to do all of the following except: Show The nurse may have to perform critical interventions on the patient before you complete your written report. You have received the following order from medical control: "Administer one tablet of nitroglycerin under the patient's tongue." Which of the following is the best response? "Order received. One nitroglycerin tablet under the patient's tongue." Which of the following agencies assigns and licenses radio frequencies? Federal Communications Commission When giving a radio report to the hospital, which of the following would be the first patient-specific information provided? the patient is a 55- year old male When giving a radio report to the hospital, which of the following would be the first patient-specific information provided? the patient is a 55- year old male Why is it important that your radio report to the receiving facility be concise? The emergency department needs to know quickly and accurately the patient's condition. While on the scene with an elderly chest pain call, you notice that your partner gets on one knee when talking to the seated patient. What is the best reason for an EMT to kneel down beside the patient? The EMT does not want to appear threatening or intimidating to the patient. You are en route to the hospital with a 22-year-old male patient who has suffered a very embarrassing injury to his genitalia. Which method of contacting the receiving facility will afford the patient the most privacy? Providing the receiving hospital with all information via a cell phone Which of the following is one the most common situations in which an EMT may be liable? Patient refusal of treatment and transport You have an urgent transmission you need to make to the dispatch center. Which of the following is the appropriate way to communicate this? Listen to the frequency first to avoid stepping on another transmission. you suspect that a 6-year-old female patient with multiple bruises and a broken wrist was abused. The stepmother states the patient fell down the stairs. The patient is crying and sheepishly nods in agreement with the stepmother's statements. How should you document this situation in the patient report? Document any pertinent information that was said by the stepmother and child exactly in quotations. Which of the following is not part of a medical radio report? Estimated time of arrival Which of the following is not appropriate for inclusion in the radio report to the receiving hospital? Name of the patient's health insurance provider You are treating a patient with a possible fractured ankle. The patient appears to be in a lot of pain and is uneasy. As you are getting ready to splint the patient's leg, he asks you if it is going to hurt. Which of the following is the best response? "I will do my best, but it may hurt while we put the splint on." How many parts does a standard medical radio report have as described in your textbook? 1) Which of the following best describes a base station? A) Two-way radio a fixed site 2) Which of the following best describes radio? B) Two-way that is mounted in a vehicle 3) Which of the following best describes a portable radio? C) Two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip 4) Which of the following best describes a repeater? D) A device that receives and amplifies a signal that must be carried over long distances 5) You are treating a 32-year-old man who is deaf. You need to find out why he called for an ambulance, What is the best way to communicate with this patient? A) Make sure the patient can see your lips when you speak 6) Which of the following agencies assigns and licenses radio frequencies? C) The Federal Communications Commission 7) Which of the following may vary from locality to locality? C) Terminology for expressing the priority level of the transport or response mode 8) which of the following is NOT considered a principle of proper radio usage in EMS? B) Speak as quickly as possible 9) During your radio report to the
hospital, which of the following peices of information should NOT be relayed? 10) How many parts does a medical radio report have? 11) Which of the following is NOT part of a medical radio report? C) Address at which patient was located 12) Which of the following information does NOT need to be provided to the dispatcher? A) Estimated time arrival at hospital 13) Which of the following tasks should be performed first upon ariving at the scene of an emergency? C) Advise dispatch that you have arrived on the scene 14) When giving a radio report to the hospital,which of the following should be stated first? D) The patient is a 55-year-old male 15) Which of the following is NOT appropriate for inclusion in the radio report to the receiving hospital? A) Name of the patient's health insurance provider 16) You have received an order from medical direction that you feel would be dettrimental to your patient. Which of the following should you do? B) Question the physician 17) Medical direction has requested that you administer 70 grams of activated charcoal to an overdose patient. Which of the following should you do next? C) Repeat the order back to the physician to make sure you understood correctly 18) Which of the following does NOT need to be communicated to the dispatch center? A) You are stopped to get lunch 19) You are treating a patient with a possible fractured ankle. The patient appears to be in a lot of pain and is uneasy. As you are getting ready to splint the
patient's leg, he asks you if it is going to hurt. Which of the following is the best response? D) "I will do my best, but it may hurt while we put the splint on." 20 You are responding to a nursing home for an 85-year-old patient complaining of difficulty breathing. How would you initiate contact with this patient? B) Place yourself at eye-level, identify yourself, and ask the patient what she would like to be called 21) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate way of dealing with a patient who does not speak the same language as you do? C) Avoid communicating with the patient so there is no misunderstanding of your intentions 22) You are on the scene of an adult male in cardiac arrest. The patient's wife
is upset and is asking you if her husband is going to be okay. How should you answer the patient's wife?
D) "Your husband's heart has stopped. We're doing everything we can, but we don't know that will happen yet." 23) Which of the following best describes the importance of effective communication of patient information in the verbal report? 24) Which of the following best describes the position you should take when dealing with a cooperative patient who is sitting in a chair?
B) Sit or kneel at the same level as the patient 25) You are attempting to place a non-rebreather on a patient who is experiencing difficulty breathing. The patient is anxious and does not want to mask on his face. Which of the following is the best course of action? C) Explain the importance of oxygen and ask the patient to at least try to leave the mask on,but that if he can't tolerate it you can try another method 26) Your elderly male patient tells you his name is Joe Smith. Which of the following is the best way to address him? A) Sir 27) Your patient is a 25-year-old complaining of abdominal pain. Which of the following is NOT
beneficial in establishing effective communication with him? A) Ask the parents to leave the room 28) You have an urgent transmission you need to make to the dispatch center. Which of the following is the appropriate
way to communicate this? B) Listen to the frequency first to avoiding stepping on another transmission 29) Which of the following is appropriate when communicating patient information to the hospital? C) Avoid extraneous information that does not assist the emergency department staff in preparing receive the patient 30) Your patient is a 43-year-old woman with chest pain. You have called
the communications center and asked for an ALS unit to be dispatched to your location. While en route, the ALS unit calls for a report. Which information is most important to the ALS unit at this time? A) The patient's level of consciousness and chief complaint 31) For which of the following reasons is it NOT appropriate to give a patient's name over the radio? 32) After giving your radio report to the
hospital, your patient loses consciousness. Which of the following should you do next? 33) You are transporting a city council to the hospital after he injured his shoulder playing basketball at his gym. His left shoulder is swollen, deformed, and bruised. There is pain and tingling when the patient attempts to use his hand. He has a pulse of 92, a respiratory rate of 20, and a blood pressure of 132/88. Which of the following should NOT be included in the radio report? C) Notifying the hospital to have extra security for a VIP 34) You have received the following
order from medical control: Administer one tablet of nitroglycerin under the patient's tongue. Which of the following is the best response? B) "Order received. One nitroglycerin tablet under the patient's tongue." 35) Which of the following statements regarding eye contact with a patient is NOT true? A) It shows you are interested in the patient 36) Which of the following is part of the minimum date set developed by the US DOT for purposes of data collection in conducting research? D) Time of arrival at the patient 37) The portion
of the patient care report in which the EMT writes his description of the patient's presentation, assessment findings, treatment and transport information is called the: 38) Which of the following in NOT an objective element of documented patient information? C) Patient's complaint of nausea 39) Which of the following should be documented as subjective patient information? 40) Which of the following
is NOT an appropriate statement for the EMT to make on a patient care report? B) The patient was having an asthma attack
41) To which of the following individuals can a patient care report be given without prior written authorization? C) Emergency department triage nurse 42) Which of the following can
be correctly noted as a chief complaint? A) The patient stated that she felt sick 43) Where should the details of a refusal of treatment be recorded? 44) Which of the following is the correct manner for making a correction on a patient care report? C) Draw a single line through the error and initial it 45) Which of the following does NOT need to be documented regarding a patient refusal or treatment? D) Any insulting remarks the patient made to you 46) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate use of patient care report information? A) Referral to Alcoholics Anonymous, support groups for domestic abuse,and similar social services 47) In which of the following circumstances is a fully documented patient care
report NOT necessary? A) There are multiple patients from an office building evacuation 48) Which of the following are possible consequences of using medical terminology about which you are unsure of the meaning in your patient care report? 49) Upon being dispatched, your dispatcher states the time, "1816 hours." Which of the following is acceptable when
documenting your time of arrival on the scene? B) Rely on the dispatcher for the accurate time of arrival 50) Under which of the following circumstances is it acceptable to use plain English, rather than medical terminology, in your patient care report? 51) Which of
the following is NOT appropriate to document on your patient care report? C) The patient's attitude 52) An EMT who writes an untrue statement about a patient that damages that patient's reputation can be sued by the patient for: 53) You have responded to a call at a government office building. One of the office workers became very upset during a fire drill and experienced an episode of difficulty breathing. As your partner is speaking with the patient, who is not sure she wants to be transported, an individual wearing civilian clothes approaches you and states she is a
security guard in the building. she asks you for the "yellow copy" of your patient care report. Which of the following should you do? A) State that you are unable to comply with the request due to patient confidentiality 54) Patient data includes all of the following EXCEPT: B) The nature of the dispatch 55) Which of the following information on a patient care report is NOT considered run data? 56) Which of the following is the most common situation in which an EMT may be liable? D) Patient refusal of treatment and transport 57) Which of the following pieces of legislation applies to use of information on a patient care report? 58) Medical documentation is an important part of the patient care process for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) Provides the media with information about the patient's condition 59) Which of the following is NOT a reason for routine review of patient care reports in a quality
improvement program? B) Satisfy requirements of the shift supervisor 60) An objective statement made in a prehospital patient care report meets all of the following criteria EXCEPT: 61) Which of the following should NOT be included in a patient care report? 62) The Health Insurance Portability and Acountability Act (HIPAA) requires ambulance services to do all of the following EXCEPT:
63) Not finding a sign or symptom that you would expect to find under the circumstances in called a: 64)
Which of the following should be placed in quotes in the patient report? 65) The patient's impression of what is wrong with him is which of the following types of information? 66) The
U.S Department of Transportation has issued specifications for all of the following types of ambulances EXCEPT: 67) Which of the following describes Fowler's position? 68)
which of the following devices is used for long-distance carries,high-angle,or off-road rescue? 69) Which of the following is the primary reason why ambulances should have two oxygen supply systems? C) To provide oxygen to two patients at one time 70) An oxygen system used for prehospital care should have a regular device capable of delivering at least______liters per minute of oxygen. 71) The fixed suction unit in the ambulance should provide an air flow of at least______liters per minute at the end of the tubing. 72) With a fixed suction system, a vacuum of at least_______mmHg must be reached within______seconds of clamping the tubing. 73) Occlusive dressings must be carried on an ambulance to treat which of the following injuries? 74) The medical acronym EMD stands for which of the following? C) Emergency medical dispatch 75) Safety studies have shown that drivers of other vehicles do not usually see or hear ambulances or other emergency vehicles until they are within_______feet of it. 76) The placement
for ambulance sirens is: 77) Tests have shown that______ambulance operators tent to speed up by 10 to 15 miles per hour when the siren is sounding. 78) Regarding the use of emergency sirens, which of the following is FALSE? D) Ambulance operators are not affected by siren noise 79) Regarding ambulance warning devices, which of the following statements is NOT true? B) The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately 80) The process of combining the patient and patient-carrying device into a unit ready for moving and transporting the patient is called: 81) In order to hold a patient securely,a
patient-carrying device should have at least______straps. 82) Which of the following transport positions is indicated for the patient in shock? 83) Which of the following conditions is NOT a
high priority for transport? B) Amputation of fingers distal to the metacarpals 84) Which of the following would be considered patient comfort supplies on an ambulance? 85) A typical fixed oxygen delivery system consists of all of the following EXCEPT: A) An 8,000 liter replacement cylinder 86) Which of the following is NOT essential equipment on an ambulance? C) An automatic transport ventilator 87)
Chemical cold packs are carried on the ambulance for treatment of which of the following? D) Musculoskeletal injuries 88) Which of the following is a purpose for carrying sterilized alumimum foil on an ambulance? A) To keep a newborn warm 89) Most states statutes allow an emergency vehicle operator to do which of the following on emergency calls? A) Exceed posted speed limits if life and property are not endangered 90) Which of the following contributes most significantly to the occurrence of ambulance crashes? 91) Operators of emergency vehicles must drive with the safety of others in mind. This is known as driving: 92) Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the emergency medical dispatcher? A) Providing medical direction to the responding units 93) You are at the scene of a vehicle collision and have found that there is one
patient who is in stable condition. At this point,the call can be categorized as: B) No longer a true emergency 94) Full immobilization of a trauma patient, including placing a cervical collar and securing the patient to a backboard,should
take place at which of the following points in time? C) Prior to moving the patient to the ambulance 95) At which of the point should you complete your patient care
report? A) As soon as you are free from patient duties 96) Which of the following should be checked with the vehicle engine turned off? 97) Which of the following is TRUE corcerning disinfection? C) A low-level disinfectant will kill germs on ambulance floors and walls 98) Which of the following is the most common type of rescue across the United States? 99) Which of the following is NOT a phase of the extrication process? 100) Which of the following is a common reason the EMT-Bs are struck by motor vehicles at the scene of motor vehicle collisions on roadways? B) Drivers are distracted by the scene of the collision and dot not pay attention to what they are doing 101) Which of the followibg is an unsafe behavior that contributes to
must injuries at the scene of vehicle collisions? B) Not wearing proper protective gear 102) Which os the following is the highest priority during extrication? C) Ensuring your personal safety 103) The EMT-B National Standard Curriculum provides which of the following specialized rescue training certifications? 104) Which of the following is NOT an example of a specialty rescue team? B) Advance cardiac life support 105) Which of the
following phases of extrication comes before the other three? C) Preparing for the rescue 106) Which of the following pahsesof extrication follows the other three? D) Immobilizing and extricating the patient 107) Which of the following activities should NOT occur during the scene size up? C) Providing airway management 108) Which of the following is an reason that the doors are removed rather than extricating patients through an open window? A) To allow for proper spinal immobilization 109) Which of the following will allow the EMT-B to suspect a higher risk of internal injury in a motor vehicle collisions? 110) At which of the following points does the "golden hour" begin? 111) An unresponsive patient is found sitting in the front seat of a vehicle with his legs pinned under the dash. Once his legs have been freed, which of the following methods should
be used for removal of the patient? C) Rapid extrication technique 112) Which of the following best describes the important of the EMT-B understanding the extrication process? A) To anticipate any dangerous steps in the extrication process 113) You are at the scene of a motor vehicle
collision in which a single vehicle has collided with a three. You note that the driver's side airbag has deployed. Which of the following is recommended by airbag manufacturers? C) Lift the airbag and inspect the steering wheel for damage 114) A 38-year-old male patient is the driver of a car that has collided with a cement bridge
abutment at a moderate of speed.He is conscious and oriented and is complaining of severe neck pain. Your rapid trauma assessment reveals no other immediate concerns. Which of the following is the best method for extricating this patient? B) The Kendrick extrication device 115) You have arrived at the scene of a motor vehicle collision to find that there are several critically injured patients. Which of the following should you do first? D) Call for additional rescue units and transpoting ambulance 116) Which of the following human factor can lead to an inbcreased risk of injury for an EMT-B at the scene of a vehicle collision? A) Careless attitude toward personal safety 117) Which of the followingcan serve as appropriate eye protection for an EMT-B on the scene of an extrication A) Face conforming goggles 118) Which of the following is the best protection for an EMT-B's body during an extrication operation? A) Firefighting turnout coat 119) Which of the following provides the best protection for the EMT-B's hands during a vehicle rescue operation? 120) Which
of the followingis a common hazard associated with the inner circle of a typical auto extrication? A) Flying glass and metal fragments 121) Which of the following is adequate protection for the EMT-B's
while at the scene of an auto extrication? A) A standard constructrion hardhat 122) Under which of the following conditions are safety vest with reflective trim effective in increasing the visibility of the EMT-B? 123) Which of the following is an advantage of removing the roof of a vehicle that has sustained major damage in a collision? 124) Once access to the patient is gained, which of the following is the next goa during an auto extrication? B) Initial assessment and rapid trauma exam
125) Which of the following is the key role of the EMT-B at the scene of an auto extrication? 126) Which of the following is the concern when you are caring for a patient who has been in a vehicle collision? 127) Which of the following is an important reason for controlling spectators at the scene of an extrication incident? 128) Which of the following measures can the EMT-B take to create a safer extrication scene? B) setting up road flares every 10 feet for a safe distance to divert traffic away from the collision? 129) Upon arrival at the scene of a motor vehicle collision, you find a vehicle that is on fire. The fire is confined to the engine compartment and the hood is tightly closed. Which of the following is the best course of action? C) Let the fire burn and concentrate on extricating the patient 130) You have arrived at the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are utility wires down around the vehicle. The three occupants appear dazed and other responding units have not yet arrived. Which of the following is the best course of action? A) Stay at a distance and caution the occupants to stay inside the vehicle 131) Whicj of the following may be a source of ignition when an ambulance is parked off the roadway in a field of dried grass? 132) Which of the following is the rule of thumb for determining the stability of a vehicle that has been involved in a collision?
D) It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel 133) Which of the
following is a good choice for preventing further injury to a patient during auto extrication? 134) Which of the following should the EMT-B consider when protecting a patient during extrication? 135) Which of the following should NOT used to protect a patient during extrication? 136) Which of the following methods should the EMT-B use first to attempt to access a patient in a vehicle while awaiting arrival of a rescue crew? B) Trying aal of the vehicle's doors to see if they will open 137) Vehicle glass that ius designed to break into small pieces rather than shattering into sharp
fragments is called: 138) If the steering wheel must be displaced during an extrication in which the airbag has not deployed, which of the following actions is recommended by airbag manufacturers? B) Disconnecting the battery cables 139) Which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials emergencies? 140) The most basic level of hazardous material training is the________level. 141) In which of the following setting should the EMT-B be alert to the possibility of hazardous materials emergencies? 142) Which of the following are desirable characteristics of the "safe zone" in a hazardous materials incident? C) Upwind, n the same level as the spill 143) Which of the following is NOT the role of the first arriving EMT-B at the scene of a possible hazardous materials emergency? B) Rescue any victims still in the are of the spill 144) In which of the following zones is the EMT-B expected to be staged at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? 145) Which of the following should be considered during the scene size up of a hazardous materials emergency? 146) Wich of the following is NOT an acceptable way
of attempting to idetify a hazardous materials? C) Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis 147) Wich of the following is a resource for specific actions to be taken by personnel dealing with a hazardous materials incident? D) Emergency response guidebook 148) When seeking expert advice on how to proceed at a hazardous materials incident, which of the following information is important to provide? A) The amount of the subtance involved A) The amount of the subtance involved 149) Wich of the following is NOT a reponsibility of an EMT-B at the scene of a hazardous materials emergency? D) Decontaminating injured victims
150) Which of the follwing is NOT a desirable characteristic of the rehabilitation sector of a hazardous materials incident? B) Located in the warm zone What should be included in a patient care report?What Patient Care Reports Should Include. Presenting medical condition and narrative.. Past medical history.. Current medications.. Clinical signs and mechanism of injury.. Presumptive diagnosis and treatments administered.. Patient demographics.. Dates and time stamps.. Signatures of EMS personnel and patient.. Which of the following should be left out of a patient care report?What should be left out of a patient care report? Your PCR should never leave the reader asking questions, such as why an ambulance was called, what the initial patient's condition was upon arrival or how the patient was moved from the position they were found in to your stretcher and ultimately to the ambulance.
Which of the following does not need to be documented regarding a patient refusal or treatment?Which of the following does NOT need to be documented regarding a patient refusal of treatment? You have received an order from medical direction that you feel would be detrimental to your patient.
What are patient care reports used for?The primary function of the Patient Care Report (PCR) is to document all aspects of a patient's care and pertinent information, as well as serve as a data collection tool. The documentation provided on a PCR ensures that vital information about the patient is kept safe in the hospital.
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Which of the following is not appropriate to document on your patient care report?
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