Which of these writing approaches makes it easier for readers to read and process long reports?

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Terms in this set (281)

1) The ________ for a report describes why you are preparing the report and what will be included.
A) mission brief
B) statement of purpose
C) outcome forecast
D) intention statement
E) scope

B) statement of purpose

2) The basic purpose of informational reports is
A) to persuade the audience to act.
B) to present recommendations and conclusions to a superior for how to solve a particular problem.
C) to present data, facts, feedback, and other types of information, without analysis or recommendations.
D) to convince the reader of the soundness of your thinking.
E) to change the audience's opinion on your topic.

C) to present data, facts, feedback, and other types of information, without analysis or recommendations.

3) In addition to offering information and analysis, ________ can also include recommendations.
A) indirect reports
B) analytical reports
C) informational reports
D) directive reports
E) socioeconomic reports

B) analytical reports

4) When you are outlining a report, using ________ requires you to really think through the content, not simply identify topic areas.
A) analytical headings
B) descriptive headings
C) informative headings
D) multilateral headings
E) subjective headings

C) informative headings

5) When you are preparing a formal work plan, include a ________ to describe what you plan to accomplish.
A) hypothesis
B) statement of purpose
C) problem statement
D) goal analysis
E) work plan

B) statement of purpose

6) The most useful way to phrase the statement of purpose in a report is with
A) complex language.
B) an infinitive phrase.
C) a controversial statement.
D) descriptive outlines
E) compelling arguments.

B) an infinitive phrase.

7) All of the following except ________ are elements in the planning phase of the three-step writing process.
A) analyzing the situation
B) adapting to your audience
C) gathering information
D) selecting the right medium
E) organizing information

B) adapting to your audience

8) When selecting the media and channels for reports,
A) you should choose the ones that are most convenient for you.
B) you should choose the ones that are most economical.
C) your decisions should reflect your audience's preferences and expectations.
D) you should always present your report in writing.
E) you should choose the one that is easiest to store.

C) your decisions should reflect your audience's preferences and expectations.

9) When outlining the content of a report,
A) use informative headings that force you to think through content.
B) use complex language for all headings.
C) create an outline that can be used in your final report.
D) finish all research first and create headings that fit the research.
E) use descriptive headings that identify general topic areas.

A) use informative headings that force you to think through content.

10) A graphical presentation of company performance is known as
A) a dashboard.
B) a printed analysis.
C) a wiki.
D) a correlation analysis.
E) mean averages.

A) a dashboard.

11) An employee who summarizes the data she collected from six different plant managers without drawing any conclusions is preparing
A) an analytical report.
B) an informational report.
C) a proposal.
D) a work plan.
E) a justification report.

B) an informational report.

12) If the audience is unsure about your credibility, how should your report or proposal be organized?
A) Categorically
B) Using a direct approach
C) Based on secondary research
D) Using the indirect approach
E) Based on cause and effect

D) Using the indirect approach

13) The list of tasks that need to be accomplished and the schedule of when tasks are to be completed are part of the
A) summary.
B) dashboard.
C) problem statement.
D) work plan.
E) wiki.

D) work plan.

14) When preparing an outline for use in collaborative writing, use ________ to think through content and develop questions to be answered.
A) dashboards
B) a descriptive outline
C) a series of problem statements
D) knowledge management systems
E) informative "talking" headings

E) informative "talking" headings

23) At the beginning of a research project the most important step is to
A) transform raw material into specific content.
B) plan your research.
C) ensure claims are supported with evidence.
D) evaluate sources for honesty and reliability.
E) create primary research.

B) plan your research.

24) Sources of secondary information include
A) first-hand observation.
B) in-person interviews.
C) magazines and newspapers.
D) experiments.
E) an online survey designed specifically for your project.

C) magazines and newspapers.

25) Which of these documents is considered primary research?
A) A published survey regarding your industry
B) The most recent issue of a trade magazine in your industry
C) Notes from a conversation you recently had with a local government official
D) Your company's quarterly balance sheet
E) Population data found on a government website

C) Notes from a conversation you recently had with a local government official

26) When evaluating material you've gathered for a report, you should
A) assume that any information taken from a webpage will be credible and reliable.
B) throw out any information published by an organization that might be biased.
C) check the material for currency and completeness.
D) ignore government documents.
E) assume blogs are objective sources.

C) check the material for currency and completeness.

27) When you paraphrase a source, you
A) restate the original material in your own words.
B) present the gist of the original material in fewer words.
C) do not require complete documentation of sources.
D) use quotation marks.
E) are plagiarizing someone else's work.

A) restate the original material in your own words.

28) One task in effective paraphrasing is to
A) avoid using any business language or jargon.
B) read the material to become thoroughly familiar with the main idea and key points.
C) make sure your version is the same length as or longer than the original.
D) write in the passive voice.
E) put it in quotation marks.

B) read the material to become thoroughly familiar with the main idea and key points.

29) ________ are systems that a company can use to capture and share information throughout the organization.
A) Engine optimization techniques
B) Natural language processing centers
C) Text analytics systems
D) Correlations
E) Knowledge management systems

E) Knowledge management systems

30) When planning your research, start by developing ________ that will define the purpose of your research.
A) primary sources
B) receiver expectation
C) a problem statement
D) a knowledge management system
E) organization of information

C) a problem statement

31) When evaluating information sources for quality, consider
A) sources that are new or obscure.
B) using only those sources that support your goal.
C) the use of strong and specific word choices.
D) the potential bias of the source.
E) primary sources.

D) the potential bias of the source.

32) When analyzing data, looking at ________ will indicate patterns taking place over time.
A) mean averages
B) causation
C) median
D) correlation
E) trends

E) trends

33) A simultaneous change in two variables is considered the ________ if you can't prove a cause-and-effect relationship between them.
A) mode
B) correlation
C) causation
D) trend
E) mean

B) correlation

34) When using information from secondary sources, ________ helps you maintain a consistent tone while using vocabulary familiar to your audience.
A) paraphrasing
B) quoting
C) natural language processing
D) concluding
E) correlating

A) paraphrasing

35) A ________ is a logical interpretation of the facts; a ________ suggests an action in response to the facts.
A) paraphrase; quote
B) cause; correlation
C) cross-tabulation; response
D) conclusion; recommendation
E) trend; summary

D) conclusion; recommendation

38) A metasearch engine is
A) a highly specialized directory that focuses on a specific subject matter area.
B) a search engine that examines only newsgroup messages.
C) a type of aggregator that offers subscribers all-day information on their desktops.
D) a special type of engine that searches several search engines at once.
E) a search engine that incorporates search engine optimization techniques.

D) a special type of engine that searches several search engines at once.

39) Online databases have an advantage over regular search engines because they
A) can be accessed only from a library.
B) can provide access to material not available on the open internet.
C) are often based on popular opinion.
D) do not require a subscription.
E) are often more current.

B) can provide access to material not available on the open internet.

40) To conduct an effective online search,
A) choose one search engine and stick with it.
B) pay attention to details.
C) limit search terms.
D) stay on the first page of results.
E) remember that the internet is neatly organized.

B) pay attention to details.

41) To access sources such as newspapers, journals and other resources not available with a standard search engine, use
A) ranking algorithms.
B) information architecture plans.
C) dashboards.
D) online databases.
E) data analytics.

D) online databases.

42) A powerful search tool that searches all the files on a company's network is a(n)
A) groupware system.
B) enterprise search engine.
C) research and content manager.
D) social tagging or bookmarking manager.
E) media curation manager.

B) enterprise search engine.

46) The two most common primary research methods are
A) websites and books.
B) experiments and observations.
C) surveys and interviews.
D) test panels and experiments.
E) reports and memos.

C) surveys and interviews.

47) When you're selecting people to participate in a survey, it is critical to get a ________ of the population you want to survey.
A) stratified sample
B) crossover sample
C) sizeable sample
D) transparent sample
E) representative sample

E) representative sample

48) An online survey is vulnerable to ________ because it captures only the opinions of those who visit the site and choose to participate.
A) sampling bias
B) backchannel static
C) circular reasoning
D) emotional manipulation
E) transactional dysfunction

A) sampling bias

49) In addition to surveys and interviews, ________ is another primary research method available to business researchers.
A) statistical projection
B) observation
C) conjoint analysis
D) metasearch analysis
E) resampling

B) observation

50) A survey is ________ if it produces identical results when repeated under similar conditions.
A) valid
B) objective
C) representative
D) bias-free
E) reliable

E) reliable

51) When developing a survey questionnaire,
A) develop questions that must be answered with several sentences.
B) use leading questions.
C) keep the questionnaire short and easy to complete.
D) use descriptors such as "often" or "frequently."
E) avoid instructions that are specific.

C) keep the questionnaire short and easy to complete.

52) Open-ended questions are best used to
A) solicit specific answers.
B) solicit opinions, insights, and information.
C) develop a sequence to potential questions.
D) find compliance levels in product use.
E) increase the reliability of a survey.

B) solicit opinions, insights, and information.

54) The CEO of a pharmaceutical company asks you assess the company's adherence to laws governing television ads for prescription drugs. The CEO has requested a(n)
A) personal activity report.
B) policy implementation report.
C) compliance report.
D) operating report.
E) business plan.

C) compliance report.

55) Reports to demonstrate compliance are generally required by
A) parent companies.
B) accounting departments.
C) government agencies.
D) marketing departments.
E) mid-level managers.

C) government agencies.

56) A contractor submitting a weekly report on work done to date would be providing the client with
A) a progress report.
B) a compliance report.
C) a justification report.
D) a periodic operating report.
E) a position paper.

A) a progress report.

57) A corporation filing a quarterly tax report would be providing
A) a progress report.
B) a compliance report.
C) a justification report.
D) a periodic operating report.
E) a policy and procedure report.

B) a compliance report.

58) All of the following except ________ are categories of informational reports.
A) reports to monitor and control operations
B) reports to demonstrate compliance
C) reports to document progress
D) reports to assess opportunities
E) reports to implement policies

D) reports to assess opportunities

59) The ________ section of a business plan explains the purpose of the business and what it hopes to accomplish.
A) mission and objectives
B) design and development
C) products and services
D) financial projections and requirements
E) monitor-and-control

A) mission and objectives

60) When using sequence as a topical organization strategy for informational reports, you provide the reader
A) steps or stages in a process.
B) similarities and differences.
C) the least important information first, building to the most important.
D) comparison chain of events.
E) data based on location such as region or city.

A) steps or stages in a process.

61) As a monitor-and-control mechanism, a business plan
A) is useful only before a company is launched.
B) always contains the same elements.
C) should not identify risks and problems, since these might discourage potential investors.
D) can make sure company operations are on track
E) is useful only when seeking additional funding.

D) can make sure company operations are on track

62) A ________ outlines an organization's official position on issues that affect its success.
A) policy report
B) position paper
C) feasibility report
D) business plan
E) compliance report

B) position paper

63) As it relates to a formal business plan, the ________ defines how the company will generate revenue and produce a profit.
A) marketing strategy
B) business model
C) action forecast
D) financial projection
E) mission and objectives

B) business model

64) When a business plan is written after a company is up and running, it tends to
A) summarize the company's business model.
B) arrange data by topical categories.
C) present a vision of what the company will be.
D) function as a monitor-and-control mechanism.
E) concisely describe products and services.

D) function as a monitor-and-control mechanism.

65) When designing the structure of a website,
A) use terms and language unique to your business.
B) follow conventions used by most businesses.
C) avoid breaking information in to small, choppy sections.
D) create self-contained sections that are independent of other sections.
E) limit links and pathways.

B) follow conventions used by most businesses.

66) ________ is used by website designers to simulate how audiences will enter and explore a website.
A) Deep web technology
B) Exit strategy
C) Static reporting
D) Mobile-first design
E) Information architecture

E) Information architecture

67) Company websites often function as
A) informational reports.
B) business plans.
C) static reports.
D) business models.
E) monitor and control reports.

A) informational reports.

68) Many businesses optimize their website to incorporate a ________ with simplified navigation to accommodate smartphones and tablets.
A) single-dimensional medium
B) mobile-first strategy
C) supply and demand strategy
D) more linear medium
E) one-page website

B) mobile-first strategy

69) ________ defines the structure and navigational flow of all parts of a website.
A) Vertical hierarchy
B) Horizontal division
C) Information architecture
D) Mobile-first strategy
E) Multidimensional division

C) Information architecture

74) A ________ is written to validate a decision that has already been made.
A) project proposal
B) progress report
C) compliance report
D) justification report
E) feasibility report

D) justification report

75) When defining the problem you need to address in an analytical report, ask yourself:
A) How long should this report be?
B) Why is this issue important?
C) What is my purpose is writing this?
D) Who will read the report?
E) How can I use this report to gain credibility?

B) Why is this issue important?

79) A ________ studies negative outcomes that happened in the past, with the hope of learning how to avoid similar outcomes in the future.
A) market analysis report
B) due diligence report
C) failure analysis report
D) feasibility report
E) business plan

C) failure analysis report

80) When you speculate about the cause of a problem, you are forming a ________, a potential explanation that needs to be tested.
A) hypothesis
B) prospectus
C) quandary
D) mindset
E) problem factor

A) hypothesis

82) Unlike proposals, justification reports
A) are designed to affirm decisions after they have been made.
B) are internal as opposed to external reports.
C) assess opportunities.
D) do not require a great deal of supporting data.
E) study failures that happened in the past.

A) are designed to affirm decisions after they have been made.

83) Analytical reports for skeptical audiences should generally follow the ________ approach.
A) direct
B) indirect
C) hypothetical
D) aggressive
E) persuasive

B) indirect

84) If your readers want to know what they should do in a given situation, your report should focus on
A) your conclusions.
B) your writing process.
C) your recommendations.
D) your sources of information.
E) your logical arguments.

C) your recommendations.

85) Reports focusing on logical arguments
A) use the indirect approach.
B) are not very convincing.
C) emphasize the positive.
D) do not include outside evidence.
E) use a direct approach.

A) use the indirect approach.

86) The problem factoring process involves
A) looking at a problem from multiple perspectives.
B) considering how to allocate blame for a problem.
C) creating problems instead of solving them.
D) dividing a complex problem into a series of logical, connected questions.
E) developing a strong hypothesis.

D) dividing a complex problem into a series of logical, connected questions.

95) A(n) ________ suggests an individualized solution for a potential customer and requests a purchase decision.
A) grant proposal
B) sales proposal
C) solicited proposal
D) project proposal
E) investment proposal

B) sales proposal

96) If you're writing an unsolicited proposal, you may have to
A) convince readers that a problem exists and should be addressed.
B) analyze the client's business in light of the competition.
C) follow the requirements in the RFP exactly.
D) enumerate the client's options regarding such business decisions as product-line expansion.
E) specify exactly the type of work to be performed.

A) convince readers that a problem exists and should be addressed.

97) ________ proposals are used to request decisions from managers within an organization; ________ proposals are directed to parties outside the organization.
A) Formal; informal
B) Internal; external
C) Solicited; unsolicited
D) External; internal
E) Direct; indirect

B) Internal; external

98) ________ are initiated by a company without a specific request from a potential client or investor.
A) Internal proposals
B) Grant proposals
C) Unsolicited proposals
D) Solicited proposals
E) Persuasive proposals

C) Unsolicited proposals

99) A formal invitation to bid on a contract is called a
A) business offering.
B) request for proposals.
C) bid requisition.
D) project invitation.
E) request for bid.

B) request for proposals.

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1) Verifying facts and references in a report helps to ensure
A) completeness.
B) accuracy.
C) the report is well balanced.
D) the report is clear and logical.
E) proper documentation.

B) accuracy.

2) Writing for audiences of another culture usually requires
A) a more formal style.
B) a humorous anecdote.
C) colorful adjectives or adverbs.
D) the use of contractions such as we've to retain a conversational tone.
E) the use of as much jargon as possible.

A) a more formal style.

3) Effective report writers use ________ to introduce important or complex topics and ________ to help readers absorb the information they just read.
A) foresight; reflection
B) inclusive ideas; deductive reasoning
C) hedging sections; forecasting sections
D) informational taglines; summary statements
E) preview sections; review sections

E) preview sections; review sections

4) Which of these writing approaches makes it easier for readers to read and process long reports?
A) using a journalism style with personal opinions.
B) using technical jargon.
C) using a format consistent with all other communications.
D) using a formal style and tone.
E) using the "you" attitude.

E) using the "you" attitude.

5) The introduction (or opening) of a business report or proposal should always
A) outline your conclusions or recommendations.
B) list all the sources from which you draw information.
C) provide a detailed description of your qualifications to write the report.
D) establish the context and identify the subject.
E) begin with a humorous anecdote.

D) establish the context and identify the subject.

6) The detailed evidence needed to support your conclusions and recommendations should appear in the ________ of your report.
A) opening
B) body
C) close
D) recommendation
E) summary

B) body

7) In addition to emphasizing the benefits of any recommendations, the close of a report should
A) include new data for one last, meaningful impact.
B) tell the reader what will happen if they don't implement what was discussed in the paper.
C) summarize key points and bring all action items together.
D) explain why you are passionate about making the proposed changes.
E) end with an insightful quote, fact or statistic.

C) summarize key points and bring all action items together.

8) In the introduction to a report on how to establish a paperless office, explaining the historical conditions or factors that led up to the report
A) enables readers to understand how the opportunity developed.
B) is unnecessary in internal reports.
C) diminishes your credibility by wasting readers' time.
D) is necessary only in very formal reports.
E) is likely to convince the audience without any further information.

A) enables readers to understand how the opportunity developed.

9) Any terms and their definitions in a report that are unfamiliar to the audience should be defined in the
A) introduction.
B) body.
C) explanatory notes.
D) summary.
E) appendix.

A) introduction.

10) A report's close should
A) provide hints on what the audience should do so that you don't sound like you're giving orders.
B) instruct your audience to contact you about what they should do next.
C) remind the reader of the benefits they will realize, if relevant.
D) imply dire consequences if the goals are not achieved.
E) minimize the impact of the main points of the message.

C) remind the reader of the benefits they will realize, if relevant.

11) The general purpose of any proposal is to entice readers to do something, so your writing approach should be similar to that used for
A) persuasive messages.
B) good-news messages.
C) routine messages.
D) corporate messages.
E) exploratory messages.

A) persuasive messages.

12) Which part of the introduction identifies what is, and isn't, covered in the report?
A) Background
B) Report organization
C) Scope
D) Sources and methods
E) Problem/opportunity/purpose

C) Scope

13) The solution section in a proposal
A) explains how your proposal will help readers solve a problem.
B) reviews the reader's situation and establishes the need for action.
C) states the boundaries of the proposal.
D) convinces the reader that a problem or an opportunity exists.
E) orients the reader to major divisions of information.

A) explains how your proposal will help readers solve a problem.

14) In the body of a proposal, you should describe
A) the change you propose, but briefly.
B) the reader's situation and the need for change.
C) why the problem exists.
D) the organization's experience in this area.
E) what you will and will not do.

D) the organization's experience in this area.

15) In a proposal, the statement of qualifications
A) presents the concept, product, or service you're proposing.
B) delineates the costs involved in your proposed solution.
C) describes your company's experience, personnel, and facilities.
D) asks a decision-maker to authorize your proposed solution.
E) orients readers to the information that the proposal will include.

C) describes your company's experience, personnel, and facilities.

16) The close of a proposal should
A) ask for a decision from the reader.
B) review costs.
C) identify when each step of the proposal will be completed.
D) describe the proposed solution in detail.
E) include a list of client references.

A) ask for a decision from the reader.

17) Including transitions is important
A) in online reports, but not usually necessary in written ones.
B) to help the audience understand how one thought is related to another.
C) when the audience is unfamiliar with the topic.
D) in any report longer than a couple of pages.
E) except on requests for proposals.

B) to help the audience understand how one thought is related to another.

18) Which of the following would be the most effective preview in a formal report?
A) Our sales in the Eastern region have plummeted.
B) First, let me begin by introducing our team.
C) The next section discusses the advantages of online advertising.
D) Okay, now for the mundane part.
E) You probably won't like this, but here it comes.

C) The next section discusses the advantages of online advertising.

19) The general purpose of any ________ is to persuade the audience to do something.
A) proposal
B) presentation
C) press release
D) research report
E) pictograph

A) proposal

20) Which of these tasks is not identified in the chapter as one of the capabilities of proposal-writing software?
A) Ensure a professional tone
B) Automatically personalize proposals
C) Ensure proper structure
D) Organize storage of all your boilerplate text
E) Fill in preliminary answers to common questions

A) Ensure a professional tone

21) Within the context of preparing formal reports and proposals, the term limitations refers to
A) the boundaries of your proposal, what you can and can't do.
B) excuses for inadequate research or a poorly written report.
C) factors beyond your control that have affected the report's outcome.
D) the risks and rewards of a specific course of action.
E) the costs and benefits of a specific course of action.

C) factors beyond your control that have affected the report's outcome.

22) The introduction of a business report should
A) discuss your conclusions or recommendations.
B) include all of your information sources.
C) carry the full weight of your message.
D) help readers understand the context of the report.
E) propose a solution.

D) help readers understand the context of the report.

23) Don't ________ in the closing section of a business report.
A) summarize the key points
B) introduce new material to expand the scope
C) list all of the action items
D) present the benefits of following the recommendations
E) present the benefits of key ideas

B) introduce new material to expand the scope

24) Which one of the following is not an element of a work plan in the body of an unsolicited proposal?
A) An explanation of the steps you'll take, their timing, and the methods or resources you'll use
B) Persuasive material to convince readers that a problem or an opportunity exists
C) Information about when work will start, how it will be monitored, and when it will end
D) A description of how you'll accomplish what must be done
E) An indication of the costs and other financial issues

B) Persuasive material to convince readers that a problem or an opportunity exists

25) When writing a proposal, an indication of costs should be addressed in the
A) proposed solution.
B) work plan.
C) statement of qualifications.
D) body of the proposal.
E) summary.

D) body of the proposal.

26) One of the benefits of using proposal-writing software when developing proposals is your ability to
A) answer questions about the RFP.
B) eliminate previous contact information.
C) create a centralized knowledge base.
D) ensure proper structure.
E) use boilerplate text.

D) ensure proper structure.

36) The inverted pyramid style of organization
A) covers the most important information first and then gradually reveals more detail.
B) covers the least important information first and works your way to the main idea.
C) pretends you're headed in one direction, and reveals your true intentions at the end.
D) walks readers through arguments you don't support, and then explains why.
E) uses as many complex sentences as possible.

A) covers the most important information first and then gradually reveals more detail.

37) The primary value of a wiki stems from
A) the recognition it offers to individual authors.
B) its focus on a single, expert perspective.
C) contributors who can integrate their work into a group effort.
D) a patented algorithm that expedites global product shipments.
E) its ability to deliver short messages to diverse groups in real time.

C) contributors who can integrate their work into a group effort.

38) When you're drafting website content, ________ will improve site navigation and content skimming.
A) links
B) lists
C) subheadings
D) a journalistic style
E) up-to-date content

A) links

40) Which of these is an effective approach to wiki writing?
A) Wall off each contributor's content.
B) Let go of traditional expectations of authorship.
C) Secure management approval before posting any content.
D) Secure management approval before posting major content additions.
E) Plan the entire wiki structure before writing any content.

B) Let go of traditional expectations of authorship.

41) Which of these terms best describes the view that careful readers have of online content?
A) Resentful
B) Receptive
C) Skeptical
D) Indifferent
E) Bored

C) Skeptical

46) Decorative visual elements that add no relevant information are referred to as
A) pictograms.
B) chartjunk.
C) attention getters.
D) pictograph.
E) embedded links.

B) chartjunk.

47) If you have a great deal of detailed, specific data points to present, the best visual to use would be a
A) table.
B) pie chart.
C) diagram.
D) flow chart.
E) bar chart.

A) table.

48) The best type of visual for showing that annual consumer spending has decreased over the past ten years would be
A) a table.
B) a pie chart.
C) a line chart.
D) an organization chart.
E) a flowchart.

C) a line chart.

49) The best visual for illustrating a manufacturer's quality control process would be a
A) line chart.
B) flowchart.
C) table.
D) pie chart.
E) bar chart.

B) flowchart.

51) To illustrate how your department's budget will be distributed by percentage and type of expense, you should use
A) an organizational chart.
B) a table.
C) a pie chart.
D) a line chart.
E) a flow chart.

C) a pie chart.

52) Flowcharts are used to
A) summarize large amounts of statistical data.
B) show the relative sizes of the parts of a whole.
C) show how something looks or operates.
D) illustrate processes and procedures.
E) indicate trends over time.

D) illustrate processes and procedures.

53) Use the concept of ________ to help you design visuals that are consistent from one page of a document to the next.
A) data visualization
B) visual parallelism
C) tag clouds
D) data redundancy
E) big data

B) visual parallelism

55) Use a ________ to show frequency or distribution of parts in a whole.
A) line chart
B) bar chart
C) histogram
D) flowchart
E) pie chart

E) pie chart

56) Which of these would be the most effective choice to show processes, transformations, and other activities?
A) tables
B) Gantt charts
C) animations and videos
D) infographics
E) bar charts

C) animations and videos

57) Which of these is a good reason to use a table in report?
A) When your audience needs information that would be either difficult or tedious to handle in the main text
B) When you don't have time to create visuals
C) When you are communicating facts rather than opinions
D) When your audience doesn't speak the same language
E) When you don't have time to write a narrative report

A) When your audience needs information that would be either difficult or tedious to handle in the main text

58) A special class of diagrams called ________ contains enough visual and textual information to function as standalone documents.
A) photographs
B) pictograms
C) data clouds
D) infographics
E) geographic information systems

D) infographics

59) The advantage of incorporating visuals is
A) they force the reader to slow down to study the message.
B) they convey less information than text, so the reader will have to read the text for supporting material.
C) people are less numbers-oriented and rely on visuals for meaning.
D) the reader is more likely to be drawn more deeply into the message.
E) they are easy to change for diverse audiences.

D) the reader is more likely to be drawn more deeply into the message.

60) Many design elements have ________, and their connotative meanings can evolve over time to mean different things in different cultures.
A) numbers
B) denotative qualities
C) visual symbolism
D) infographics
E) visual literacy elements

C) visual symbolism

61) The ability of the sender to create effective images that are correctly interpreted by the receiver is
A) visual parallelism.
B) big data.
C) visual symbolism.
D) visual literacy.
E) convention.

D) visual literacy.

62) To emphasize differences in a visual, make design choices that
A) are formal.
B) create parallelism.
C) are simple.
D) follow rules of convention.
E) create contrast.

E) create contrast.

63) Data visualization is an important tool when using ________ because it helps users experiment with data sets and find new relationships.
A) bar charts
B) big data
C) aggregated data
D) infographics
E) parallelism

B) big data

64) When creating visuals for massive data sets, complex quantities, or dynamic data, use
A) flowcharts.
B) infographics.
C) data visualization.
D) line and surface charts.
E) tables.

C) data visualization.

65) The balance in a document should be based on
A) the desired level of formality
B) the length of the report/presentation.
C) the amount of money available for underwriting the costs of graphics.
D) internal company guidelines.
E) the variety of visuals used.

A) the desired level of formality

66) The primary difference between titles and captions of visuals is that
A) titles are usually longer than captions.
B) captions usually appear above visuals, whereas titles appear below.
C) captions offer discussion of the visual's content.
D) titles provide detailed descriptions of visuals, but captions give only short descriptions.
E) None of the above—they are simply different terms for the same thing.

C) captions offer discussion of the visual's content.

67) When integrating your visuals and text,
A) place all visuals at the end of the text in an appendix.
B) avoid the use of titles or other descriptors.
C) switch back and forth between visuals and words.
D) refer to the visuals by number in the text.
E) use sidebars.

D) refer to the visuals by number in the text.

68) Ideally, all visuals should
A) be placed in a separate appendix.
B) use the same format.
C) be near the text that refers to them.
D) be alphabetized.
E) be placed together.

C) be near the text that refers to them.

69) A(n) ________ helps readers understand the various design elements used in a visual.
A) caption
B) descriptive title
C) legend
D) informative title
E) infographic

C) legend

81) The revision process for business reports is essentially the same as it is for other messages but
A) often requires far less effort.
B) often takes much less time.
C) may take considerably more time.
D) often can be accomplished entirely by common word processing software.
E) is only rarely required.

C) may take considerably more time.

82) The revision process for formal reports and proposals includes all of the following except
A) profiling the audience.
B) evaluating overall organization.
C) adding headings and subheadings.
D) making sure the content responds to audience needs.
E) striving for writing that is clear, concise, and compelling.

A) profiling the audience.

83) Which of the following is not included in the prefatory parts of a formal report?
A) Cover
B) Letter of authorization
C) Introduction
D) Table of contents
E) Title page

C) Introduction

84) In a formal report, information such as the report title, the writer's name, and the submission date can be found
A) on the title page.
B) on the title fly page.
C) in the synopsis.
D) in the letter of transmittal.
E) in the letter of authorization.

A) on the title page.

85) A letter of ________ is a specialized cover letter that introduces your report to the audience.
A) authorization
B) acceptance
C) transmittal
D) introduction
E) appreciation

C) transmittal

86) When proofreading formal reports and proposals don't forget to
A) go back and use the most impressive words you can find to describe key concepts.
B) proof your visuals thoroughly and make sure they are positioned correctly.
C) ignore concepts and focus exclusively on wording.
D) rely on your software's spelling and grammar checkers to find errors.
E) keep in mind that speed is often more important than accuracy.

B) proof your visuals thoroughly and make sure they are positioned correctly.

87) For digital distribution of reports and proposals, you should
A) always send documents as word-processor files, unless the audience requests otherwise.
B) ask the readers what format they would like to receive reports in.
C) send the documents multiple times as email attachments, just to make sure they get there.
D) send WordPerfect files, rather than Microsoft Word or PDF.
E) request a notice when the report or proposal is received.

B) ask the readers what format they would like to receive reports in.

88) If your company or client expects you to distribute a report online via cloud storage,
A) make sure the file gets posted to the correct location.
B) deliver hard copies to those who are slow to respond on email.
C) indicate in an email when a response is expected.
D) ask each recipient in writing to verify that he or she can access it.
E) load visuals in a separate file.

A) make sure the file gets posted to the correct location.

89) If you are competing with several other firms in the submission of a proposal, one way to stand out from the competitors is to
A) deviate from the RFP in creative ways.
B) deliver the proposal via email.
C) use a professional courier or delivery service.
D) call later that day to ensure arrival.
E) deliver the proposal over a celebratory lunch.

C) use a professional courier or delivery service.

90) All of the following are tasks that must be performed in order to complete your document except
A) revising.
B) producing.
C) researching.
D) proofreading.
E) distributing.

C) researching.

91) When evaluating your finished draft for organization, style, and tone,
A) make sure your content is clear, logical, and reader oriented.
B) look for inconsistencies in formatting.
C) ensure there are no missing components.
D) look at visuals to make sure they are positioned correctly.
E) add decorative elements such as borders and clip art.

A) make sure your content is clear, logical, and reader oriented.

92) Which of these is a good way to improve the readability of a report?
A) Vary sentence length.
B) Combine paragraphs to add length and depth.
C) Remove bullets and other lists.
D) Check the recency of the content.
E) Print the document on résumé-quality paper.

A) Vary sentence length.

93) Using lists and bullets can improve a report or proposal's
A) consistency.
B) legibility.
C) readability.
D) complexity.
E) tone.

C) readability.

94) After assembling a report in its final form, check for
A) compliance with the RFP.
B) spelling and grammatical errors.
C) organization.
D) missing components.
E) distribution options.

D) missing components.

95) A synopsis is also known as
A) an abstract.
B) an executive summary.
C) a collation.
D) a mini version of the report.
E) an index.

A) an abstract.

96) If you want to describe what a report is about without revealing the main idea of the report, create a synopsis using
A) an appendix.
B) descriptive format.
C) an expanded Table of Contents.
D) informative phrasing.
E) infographics.

B) descriptive format.

97) An executive summary acts as a
A) résumé of key players.
B) tool for avoiding ethical lapses.
C) mini version of the report.
D) legend.
E) data visualization tool.

C) mini version of the report.

chap14

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1) Speeches and presentations are much like any other messages in that
A) they all require similar planning.
B) they are delivered to groups that are similar in size.
C) the interaction between the audience and speaker is similar.
D) they deal with emotional or personal issues to a similar extent.
E) they require little planning.

A) they all require similar planning.

2) When you prepare a speech or presentation, defining your purpose and developing your audience profile involves
A) analyzing the situation.
B) determining the length of your presentation.
C) planning the content, and style of your speech or presentation.
D) deciding on the right mix of visuals and text for your slides.
E) inviting audience members.

A) analyzing the situation.

3) The two most common purposes of business presentations are to
A) analyze and synthesize.
B) regulate and validate.
C) inform and persuade.
D) illustrate and entertain.
E) observe and comment.

C) inform and persuade.

5) Selecting the right medium for your presentation is
A) easy because you're simply giving a speech.
B) an important decision since technology offers a number of choices.
C) only an issue when addressing audiences from other cultures.
D) not something you need to think about early on.
E) a secondary concern as long as your content is good.

B) an important decision since technology offers a number of choices.

6) A successful presentation starts with
A) developing an outline.
B) defining the main idea.
C) writing the introduction.
D) deciding on the delivery style.
E) completing all of your visuals.

B) defining the main idea.

7) The best way to clarify your main idea in a presentation is to
A) provide a lengthy handout for your audience to review during your presentation.
B) use jargon and complicated language to emphasize its importance.
C) develop a single sentence that links your subject and purpose to your audience's frame of reference.
D) develop a limited scope.
E) restate it in three identical sentences, one right after the other.

C) develop a single sentence that links your subject and purpose to your audience's frame of reference.

8) For business presentations, time limits are often
A) fixed, with little or no flexibility.
B) meaningless since audiences expect presenters to take extra time.
C) imposed only on lower-level employees.
D) not important if you are presenting to your colleagues.
E) eliminated if presenting online.

A) fixed, with little or no flexibility.

9) Which of these is the best way to develop a speaking outline after you have completed your planning outline?
A) Add transitions and key words to your planning outline.
B) Ignore your planning outline and chart a new course based on your personal agenda.
C) Strip out anything you don't plan to say directly to the audience, condense key points, and add delivery cues.
D) Keyboard your script on your slides. That way, you can read the slides word-for-word.
E) Insert additional examples, details, and data into your original planning outline.

C) Strip out anything you don't plan to say directly to the audience, condense key points, and add delivery cues.

10) If you are not given a time limit for your presentation, you should
A) make it as long as possible to ensure the audience understands the message.
B) keep the presentation as short as possible while accomplishing your purpose.
C) ask the audience how long they would like the presentation to take.
D) make sure it takes no less than 30 minutes, not including the question-and-answer session.
E) deliver the presentation impromptu, and end it whenever the audience appears to be losing interest.

B) keep the presentation as short as possible while accomplishing your purpose.

11) Which of these is good advice for preparing a speaking outline?
A) Add delivery cues, such as places where you plan to pause for emphasis or use visuals.
B) Repeat your planning outline verbatim.
C) Avoid numbering your notecards so you can adjust the flow at the last second.
D) Don't clutter it with delivery cues.
E) Include major blocks of text so that you can read them if you lose your place.

A) Add delivery cues, such as places where you plan to pause for emphasis or use visuals.

12) The advantage of using a nonlinear format in a presentation is that the speaker can
A) establish a predefined flow from start to finish.
B) dismiss the listeners' concerns and persuade them that they are mistaken for feeling the way they do.
C) move back and forth between topics and show relationships between multiple ideas.
D) build credibility as he/she presents compelling reasons to accept his/her message.
E) limit the use of visuals.

C) move back and forth between topics and show relationships between multiple ideas.

13) One advantage of developing a presentation as a webcast is
A) the low cost.
B) the ability to tweet the message.
C) the use of an audio voiceover.
D) that audiences can download and view it later.
E) the interaction with a live audience.

D) that audiences can download and view it later.

14) ________ are organized like printed documents in the sense that they follow a predefined flow.
A) Direct format presentations
B) Nonlinear presentations
C) Slide decks
D) Prezis
E) Linear presentations

E) Linear presentations

15) When the goal is to show complicated relationships between multiple ideas, consider using
A) a slide deck.
B) the indirect format.
C) a linear format.
D) a nonlinear format.
E) a narrative flow.

D) a nonlinear format.

16) Use a nonlinear presentation when you want to
A) have flexibility to move from topic to topic in any order.
B) move in a predefined flow, from start to finish.
C) explain technical details point by point.
D) lead the audience to a specific conclusion step by step.
E) follow the outline of your printed document.

A) have flexibility to move from topic to topic in any order.

27) To reduce the formality of a presentation,
A) use a conversational tone during the presentation.
B) deliver your presentation in an auditorium.
C) seat the audience in preconfigured rows.
D) deliver your remarks in the passive voice.
E) use a microphone to be sure everyone can hear.

A) use a conversational tone during the presentation.

28) Generally, when a speaker presents to a larger audience,
A) the presentation will be more informal.
B) less time should be allotted for questions.
C) the presentation becomes more formal.
D) more visuals should be used.
E) there is less chance of everyone in the audience understanding the message.

C) the presentation becomes more formal.

29) An effective introduction to a presentation
A) introduces the importance of visuals.
B) establishes your credibility.
C) prepares the audience for the tasks they will be assigned after the presentations.
D) incorporates liberal use of transitions.
E) puts the audience in the appropriate emotional state.

B) establishes your credibility.

31) One effective way to arouse interest at the start of a presentation is to
A) start with a tried-and-true joke.
B) unite the audience around a common good.
C) use a teaser statement that implies what you'll be discussing.
D) start with the ending.
E) explain your credentials.

B) unite the audience around a common good.

32) Commenting on the circumstances surrounding a presentation can be an effective way to
A) identify your main supporting points.
B) arouse the interest of the audience.
C) summarize the main idea of your presentation.
D) reveal the order in which you'll develop your main points.
E) identify yourself as an expert on the topic.

B) arouse the interest of the audience.

33) The sentence, "Now that we've identified the problem, let's take a look at some solutions," is an example of
A) a problem statement for a presentation.
B) a transition between major sections of a presentation.
C) a statement of intent for a presentation.
D) the main idea for a presentation.
E) a redundant phrase that should be eliminated.

B) a transition between major sections of a presentation.

34) Which of these is a good way to hold your audience's attention during the body of a presentation?
A) Make at least seven or eight main points.
B) Include numerous abstract ideas.
C) Relate your subject to your audience's needs.
D) Repeat the same words and phrases.
E) Incorporate humor that is appropriate but edgy.

C) Relate your subject to your audience's needs.

35) When you're concluding a presentation,
A) briefly restate the main points you covered during the presentation.
B) bring up any information you forgot to include during the presentation.
C) share an email address to respond to questions that the audience may have.
D) don't let the audience know you're ready to close the presentation.
E) let your audience decide how they feel and what they'll do about your presentation.

A) briefly restate the main points you covered during the presentation.

36) When you have covered all the main points in your presentation, you should
A) get ready to end your message on a clear and confident note.
B) wrap up as quickly as possible by avoiding questions from the audience.
C) avoid using such phrases as "To sum it all up" and "In conclusion."
D) add one new thought to keep the audience thinking about the presentation.
E) end with a detailed explanation of how hard you worked on preparing your speech.

A) get ready to end your message on a clear and confident note.

37) If there is a lack of consensus among the audience at the end of your presentation, you should
A) gloss over it as quickly as possible.
B) make the disagreement clear and be ready to suggest a method for resolving the differences.
C) identify the individuals causing the disagreement and ask them pointed questions.
D) calmly explain that no one is leaving until the disagreements have been resolved.
E) repeat key sections of the presentation.

B) make the disagreement clear and be ready to suggest a method for resolving the differences.

38) If the purpose of your presentation is to get your audience involved in an upcoming project, you should
A) open the floor for questions, as soon as you've covered your main points.
B) make sure that your close is ambiguous and needs clarification.
C) close by confirming who'll be involved and what they'll do.
D) gloss over any difficulties that will be involved when completing the project.
E) explain the result of inaction.

C) close by confirming who'll be involved and what they'll do.

39) You should close your presentation
A) on a memorable note.
B) by leaving the audience with unanswered questions.
C) with something dramatic or flamboyant.
D) by introducing some new ideas for the audience to think about.
E) with a humorous statement.

A) on a memorable note.

40) When you're introducing a presentation, include a ________ to help your audience understand the structure and content of your message.
A) catalog of sources
B) preview
C) backchannel
D) contextual connection
E) humorous story

B) preview

47) Effective text slides should do all of the following except
A) highlight key points.
B) display your entire speaking script.
C) summarize and preview your message.
D) signal major shifts in thought.
E) illustrate concepts.

B) display your entire speaking script.

48) For most business presentations, ________ are the medium of choice.
A) flip charts
B) whiteboards
C) slides
D) overhead transparencies
E) chalkboards

C) slides

49) Overhead transparencies are
A) no longer used.
B) old-fashioned, but offer some advantages compared to slides.
C) appropriate only for highly technical presentations.
D) much easier to edit than slides.
E) universal and widespread in use.

B) old-fashioned, but offer some advantages compared to slides.

51) A visual report is
A) another name for a presentation.
B) is always better than a presentation.
C) a hybrid between conventional reports and presentation slides.
D) a set of information-dense slides to use in a presentation.
E) a report on the state of a company's visuals.

C) a hybrid between conventional reports and presentation slides.

52) The two layers of design in every slide are the
A) color and the white space
B) formal and the informal.
C) foreground and the background.
D) front and the back.
E) verbal and the visual.

C) foreground and the background.

53) When preparing a background design for slides,
A) use unique text and graphical elements.
B) be sure the background is not distracting.
C) include the essential content of the slide.
D) include all functional artwork.
E) include only decorative artwork.

B) be sure the background is not distracting.

54) The slide master feature in presentation software
A) should be avoided, since it is viewed as a crutch for unskilled presenters.
B) gives your slides a cartoonish look.
C) helps create a consistent design for your entire slide show.
D) is too complicated for most presenters to use effectively.
E) is helpful only if you have fewer than 10 slides.

C) helps create a consistent design for your entire slide show.

55) When using slide builds, you should
A) limit them to text; they are not appropriate for graphics.
B) vary the direction: sometimes from top to bottom, sometimes from left to right.
C) reveal information in a way that helps your audience understand your message.
D) set them up so that each letter of the text on a slide appears one at a time.
E) incorporate hyperlinks.

C) reveal information in a way that helps your audience understand your message.

56) Hyperlinks are useful in slide presentations for
A) limiting additional details.
B) restricting confidential information.
C) introducing additional information during the close.
D) increasing flexibility in the presentation sequence in response to audience feedback.
E) transferring the presentation to a mobile device.

D) increasing flexibility in the presentation sequence in response to audience feedback.

57) You can use ________ to control how one slide replaces another on the screen; you can also use ________ to control the release of text, graphics, and other elements on individual slides.
A) slide agendas; slide blueprints
B) slide transitions; slide builds
C) slide storyboards; slide templates
D) slide builds; slide transitions
E) slide hyperlinks; slide pull quotes

B) slide transitions; slide builds

58) ________ conveys information that is part of your message.
A) Decorative artwork
B) Background artwork
C) Functional artwork
D) Digital artwork
E) Bold artwork

C) Functional artwork

59) Which one of the following is a good use of functional animation?
A) Using Prezi software
B) To demonstrate a sequence or procedure
C) To ease the viewer's gaze from one slide to the next
D) Making a clipart image spin around in circles
E) To allow one point to appear on the slide at a time

B) To demonstrate a sequence or procedure

60) When it comes to slide design,
A) consistency is critical because audiences assign meaning to visual elements beginning with the first slide.
B) audiences will pay more attention to the slide deck than the speaker.
C) typeface is easier to read on screen than on a printed page.
D) the background should include meaningful decorative elements.
E) charts, graphs and other functional artwork should be used sparingly.

A) consistency is critical because audiences assign meaning to visual elements beginning with the first slide.

61) When using charts and tables in presentations,
A) you should be able to read them from two feet away.
B) they should be simpler than visuals for printed documents.
C) include decorative elements to add interest.
D) keep colors muted and blended.
E) a Prezi can help break down large amounts of data.

B) they should be simpler than visuals for printed documents.

62) Structured presentation slides are usually the best choice for
A) routine presentations.
B) persuasive presentations.
C) sales presentations.
D) motivational presentations.
E) impromptu presentations.

A) routine presentations.

63) A presenter who is using free-form slides is
A) free to read the presentation script word-for-word.
B) released from the constraints of place and time.
C) responsible for conveying more of the content.
D) able to rely on each slide to function as a multimedia teleprompter.
E) more likely to present complex subjects in a cohesive, integrated manner.

C) responsible for conveying more of the content.

64) Expert presenters often structure specific slides around a ________ that helps organize and explain the points they are trying to make.
A) decorative element
B) bullet point
C) transition
D) key visual
E) theme

D) key visual

71) What does "death by PowerPoint" mean?
A) The agonizing experience of sitting through too many poorly conceived and poorly delivered slide shows
B) The end of conventional business presentations
C) The replacement of human-generated presentations with AI-generated presentations
D) Getting fired during a PowerPoint presentation
E) The obsolescence of PowerPoint software

A) The agonizing experience of sitting through too many poorly conceived and poorly delivered slide shows

72) Don't try to memorize a presentation because
A) you should be using a fully written script.
B) you'll probably sound stiff and overly formal when you deliver the message.
C) it increases the necessity for improvising when you forget a line.
D) you will have to increase your eye contact with the audience.
E) audiences prefer to be read to rather than talked at.

B) you'll probably sound stiff and overly formal when you deliver the message.

73) Delivering your presentation by reading it word for word is a good idea when
A) your presentation is very lengthy.
B) you're covering policy statements or legal documents that must be presented verbatim.
C) the presentation is humorous.
D) the audience is hostile.
E) you are nervous.

B) you're covering policy statements or legal documents that must be presented verbatim.

74) The most effective and easiest mode of delivering presentations in nearly all situations is
A) memorization.
B) reading from a prepared script.
C) speaking from an outline or notes.
D) impromptu speaking.
E) from a seated position.

C) speaking from an outline or notes.

75) Speaking from notes or an outline is often effective because
A) you can look at the notes instead of at your audience.
B) you can maintain a natural speaking flow.
C) it reduces the likelihood that you will improvise.
D) it enables you to read the presentation word-for-word.
E) it takes far less time to prepare than writing out the entire presentation.

B) you can maintain a natural speaking flow.

76) Rehearsing your presentation will
A) help you check your voice, timing, phrasing, and equipment.
B) increase your need for text slides.
C) most likely ruin your ability to make an impromptu presentation.
D) rob you of the confidence you need.
E) waste valuable time, since most presentations are delivered in person.

A) help you check your voice, timing, phrasing, and equipment.

77) When checking the location of your presentation in advance, you should
A) keep seating arrangements casual.
B) always request a whiteboard, even if you aren't sure you will need it.
C) think carefully about seating arrangements.
D) trust that the technology you need will be available and working.
E) make sure the lights dim to discourage audience interaction.

C) think carefully about seating arrangements.

78) One of the best ways to organize, reposition, and delete slides while checking for design consistency is with the use of
A) slide deck.
B) hyperlink.
C) slide sorter view.
D) slide builds.
E) slide transitions.

C) slide sorter view.

79) To share information such as hashtags and Wi-Fi log-in information, include
A) a title slide.
B) navigation slides.
C) handouts.
D) agenda and program detail slides.
E) hyperlinks.

D) agenda and program detail slides.

80) When planning your presentation visuals,
A) use design principles that focus on attractive artwork.
B) create slideuments.
C) limit the use of free-form slides.
D) use bullet points whenever possible.
E) make sure the message, not the visual, is the focus of the presentation.

E) make sure the message, not the visual, is the focus of the presentation.

82) ________ slides indicate which material has been covered and which section you are about to begin.
A) Title
B) Agenda
C) Navigation
D) Template
E) Program

C) Navigation

84) Which of the following is not a good way to deal with speaking anxiety?
A) Prepare more material than necessary.
B) Concentrate on your nervousness to force it away.
C) Take a few deep breaths before speaking.
D) Have your first sentence memorized and on the tip of your tongue.
E) Visualize success.

B) Concentrate on your nervousness to force it away.

85) In business presentations, the backchannel is
A) the "notes" portion of a slide, which only the presenter can see.
B) subtle, nonverbal cues the presenter sends during the presentation.
C) digital communication among audience members during the presentation.
D) password-protected slides that only certain audience members can see.
E) an impromptu speech designed to take control of a presentation.

C) digital communication among audience members during the presentation.

86) Sending preview materials to the audience prior to an online presentation
A) will discourage participants from attending your presentation.
B) can suggest that you are not confident in your abilities as a presenter.
C) can help audience members become familiar with important background information.
D) will minimize backchannel activity during your presentation.
E) will distract readers from the main idea of your presentation.

C) can help audience members become familiar with important background information.

87) The backchannel can present challenges for business presenters because
A) Twitter breaks must be scheduled.
B) contrary audience members can have more leverage.
C) supportive listeners can spread your message to a much larger audience.
D) it is difficult to track what parts of the presentation were effective, and which were not.
E) the hashtag must be meaningful and relevant.

B) contrary audience members can have more leverage.

89) Answering questions during a presentation gives you a chance to
A) change the presentation to better reach the audience.
B) provide the information that is of most interest to the audience.
C) establish ground rules for questions.
D) emphasize your main idea and supporting points.
E) respond to the backchannel.

D) emphasize your main idea and supporting points.

90) Best practices for the question-and-answer session after a presentation include
A) counting on being able to set ground rules for the session.
B) anticipating likely questions and thinking through your answers.
C) assuming that you'll be able to handle questions without some preparation.
D) realizing that the question-and-answer session is relatively unimportant.
E) pretending that you know the answer to a question, even when you don't.

B) anticipating likely questions and thinking through your answers.

92) Successful speakers work on making
A) an authentic connection with listeners.
B) a note-perfect presentation.
C) a strong use of the backchannel.
D) tech-savvy presentations.
E) the audience change their mind about an issue.

A) an authentic connection with listeners.

93) Which of these is a key benefit of maintaining eye contact with friendly audience members?
A) Concentrating on your emotional state
B) Reducing your anxiety through positive feedback
C) Avoiding negative feedback
D) Distracting yourself from difficult message points
E) Confirming your approach

B) Reducing your anxiety through positive feedback

94) When planning a team presentation,
A) outline sections of the presentation individually.
B) assign the presentation creation to one person.
C) outline the presentation together so that everyone has input and agrees to the flow of topics.
D) have the most engaging and dynamic speaker speak last.
E) create individual slide decks that can be uploaded independently.

C) outline the presentation together so that everyone has input and agrees to the flow of topics.

95) To prepare for questions from the audience,
A) have friendly audience members ask predetermined questions.
B) offer to meet after the presentation.
C) prepare extra slides and handouts that will speak for you.
D) learn about the audience and their concerns ahead of time.
E) establish ground rules and don't respond to those who will not follow the rules.

D) learn about the audience and their concerns ahead of time.

97) One of the benefits of giving a presentation online is
A) the ability to reach a geographically dispersed audience.
B) the ability to manage high production costs.
C) the ability to see and respond to nonverbal cues.
D) the ability to change to presentation "live."
E) the lack of face-to-face feedback from the audience.

A) the ability to reach a geographically dispersed audience.

98) When developing a presentation for an online audience,
A) send out study materials immediately after the presentation is over.
B) break complicated slides into multiple slides.
C) limit the use of the backchannel to Twitter breaks.
D) start the presentation on time.
E) keep each slide on screen for a longer period of time.

B) break complicated slides into multiple slides.

chap 16

-

1) The best approach for an application letter depends on
A) how much you need to stand out from other applicants.
B) whether or not your résumé is up to date.
C) how long you have been in the job market.
D) whether you are sending a solicited letter or an unsolicited letter.
E) your relationship with the person you are writing to.

D) whether you are sending a solicited letter or an unsolicited letter.

2) When you're writing an application letter to accompany your résumé,
A) use text-messaging jargon and emoticons to show that you're tech-savvy.
B) remember that every employer will read it before reading the résumé.
C) use it as a free-form way to convey your career aspirations.
D) treat it with same care that you took with your résumé.
E) outline the job, benefits and salary range you are seeking.

D) treat it with same care that you took with your résumé.

3) Unsolicited application letters to prospective employers
A) require more research than solicited letters.
B) allow a clear target to focus on.
C) should repeat key pieces of information from the résumé.
D) identify what the organization is doing wrong and how you can contribute to its success.
E) need to be more gimmicky than solicited application letters.

A) require more research than solicited letters.

4) Compared to writing a solicited application letter, composing an unsolicited application letter is
A) much easier.
B) much more difficult.
C) equally challenging.
D) most effective when you use passive verbs entirely.
E) most effective when you use only complex sentences.

B) much more difficult.

5) One of the goals of an application letter is to
A) ask for a job.
B) ask for an interview.
C) clarify job and salary requirements.
D) rephrase information from the résumé.
E) explain how hiring you can help you achieve your career goals.

B) ask for an interview.

6) The best way to address an application letter is to use
A) "Dear Hiring Manager."
B) "To Whom It May Concern."
C) an opening that addresses a specific individual by name.
D) "Dear Sir or Madam."
E) an opening that is very informal, such as, "Hi."

C) an opening that addresses a specific individual by name.

7) When it comes to length, an application letter should
A) be at least two pages long, since it shows the prospective employer that you write well and are serious.
B) be no more than a single paragraph.
C) contain one paragraph for every 5 years of full-time employment.
D) be short—no more than three or four paragraphs.
E) be long enough to cover everything that appears on your résumé.

D) be short—no more than three or four paragraphs.

8) Because application letters are ________ messages, the AIDA approach is ideally suited for them.
A) positive
B) negative
C) persuasive
D) routine
E) personal

C) persuasive

9) Which of the following would be the best opening sentence for a solicited application letter?
A) "I am clearly the best person for the job you've advertised."
B) "I'm sure you get these letters all the time, but I hope you'll read mine carefully."
C) "I want a job, and you've got one that I could do."
D) "Based on your company's remarkable growth over the past three years, I can appreciate your need for highly qualified and experienced sales personnel."
E) "My entire life I have dreamed about working in a job such as this."

D) "Based on your company's remarkable growth over the past three years, I can appreciate your need for highly qualified and experienced sales personnel."

10) In the opening paragraph of an application letter, it is vital to
A) indicate what you are looking for in a dream job, and how the open position matches your goals.
B) identify the position you are applying for and your salary range.
C) explain how you can help the company meet its needs.
D) let the employer know highlights from your résumé.
E) make sure the employer understands that you need a response within 24 hours.

C) explain how you can help the company meet its needs.

11) In the middle section of a job application letter, you should
A) present your strongest selling points in terms of their potential benefit to the organization.
B) give your entire work history, in case the employer doesn't review your résumé.
C) address your shortcomings and stress that you're willing to learn.
D) state your minimum salary requirements, even if the employer has not requested them.
E) ask for an interview and include your contact information.

A) present your strongest selling points in terms of their potential benefit to the organization.

12) In the interest and desire sections of a solicited application letter, discussing the requirements specified in the job ad
A) will reduce your chances of getting an interview.
B) is unnecessary as long as you refer to the ad in some specific way.
C) is helpful as long as you clearly identify those that you do not meet.
D) is harmful if the position requires creativity or innovation.
E) helps demonstrate your understanding of the employer's needs.

E) helps demonstrate your understanding of the employer's needs.

13) In the final paragraph of your application letter you should
A) show the reader that you're a contender and demand an interview.
B) close with a quote from your favorite philosopher or poet.
C) request an interview and provide contact information.
D) include information about extracurricular activities to show how well-rounded you are.
E) thank the reader in advance for interviewing you.

C) request an interview and provide contact information.

14) If your application letter and résumé fail to bring a response within a week or two after the posted close date,
A) let the CEO of the company know that you're being mistreated.
B) follow up by email or telephone.
C) cross this particular job possibility off your list.
D) send another copy of your application letter and résumé.
E) assume that the employer has offered the job to someone else.

B) follow up by email or telephone.

15) After sending your application letter and résumé in response to a job posting that lists a close date, you should
A) always call the employer prior to that date to see if your materials have been reviewed.
B) email the employer on the morning of the close date to reiterate your interest in the job.
C) avoid following up with the employer before that date.
D) wait until the day after the close date and then call the employer to see where you stand.
E) call the employer and do all you can to set up an interview prior to that date.

C) avoid following up with the employer before that date.

16) Accompany your résumé with a ________ when you're responding to an advertised job opening.
A) letter of inquiry
B) follow-up message
C) message of intent
D) solicited application letter
E) prospective application letter

D) solicited application letter

17) When you're preparing an application letter, remember that ________ must clearly state your reason for writing and give the recipient a compelling reason to keep reading.
A) the subject line
B) the opening paragraph
C) the closing paragraph
D) the second paragraph
E) the salutation

B) the opening paragraph

22) Which of these would not be wise to do during selection stage of the interview process?
A) Present yourself as a quality hire.
B) Ask basic questions about the company, such as which industry it is in.
C) Show keen interest in the job.
D) Try to determine whether you'll be able to build rapport with your future boss.
E) Relate your skills to the company's needs.

B) Ask basic questions about the company, such as which industry it is in.

23) Employers usually begin with a preliminary screening process to
A) find out as much as possible about each job candidate.
B) administer pre-employment profiles and drug tests.
C) filter out applicants who are not a good fit for the job.
D) make on-the-spot offers to the best candidates.
E) determine what they can expect from potential job candidates

C) filter out applicants who are not a good fit for the job.

24) For screening interviews,
A) ask as many questions as possible.
B) study the job description carefully and be ready to respond to questions about the major qualifications of the position.
C) expand on your answers as much as possible so that the interviewer knows you are at ease.
D) keep as low a profile as you can; this is not the time to try to differentiate yourself from other candidates.
E) ask for feedback on how you compare to other candidates.

B) study the job description carefully and be ready to respond to questions about the major qualifications of the position.

25) From an employer's perspective, one key advantage of using a structured interview format is
A) ease in determining personality traits that might contribute to job success.
B) ease in comparing and ranking candidates.
C) the ability to replace interviewers with chatbots.
D) the ability to see how a candidate performs under pressure.
E) a greater understanding of problem-solving skills.

B) ease in comparing and ranking candidates.

26) In the ________ stage, a candidate has made it past the screening stage and is being invited to a more in-depth interview.
A) decision
B) narrowing
C) exploration
D) elimination
E) selection

E) selection

27) In the selection stage of an interview, your best approach is to
A) stick to brief yes and no answers to the interview questions.
B) relate your training and experience to the organization's needs.
C) inquire about salary and benefits.
D) press for an immediate decision on whether or not to hire you.
E) ask questions about what the organization does and your role in it.

B) relate your training and experience to the organization's needs.

28) An employer would most likely use ________ interview to see how well you fit the company culture.
A) a group
B) an unstructured
C) a behavioral
D) a case
E) a stress

B) an unstructured

29) Interviews in which the interviewer adapts his or her line of questioning based on the answers you give and any questions you ask are known as ________ interviews.
A) behavioral
B) panel
C) situational
D) stress
E) unstructured

E) unstructured

30) In a(n) ________, the candidate meets with several interviewers at once.
A) panel interview
B) open-ended interview
C) team interview
D) collaborative interview
E) behavioral interview

A) panel interview

31) ________ interviews allow one or more interviewers to meet with several candidates simultaneously and to observe how the candidates interact with potential peers.
A) Panel
B) Group
C) Team
D) Collaborative
E) Stress

B) Group

32) Questions in which job candidates are asked how they would respond to various hypothetical situations on the job are known as ________ questions.
A) stress
B) structured
C) behavioral
D) situational
E) working

D) situational

33) "Describe a situation in which you had to address an ethical dilemma" is an example of a ________ question.
A) structured
B) stress
C) behavioral
D) situational
E) working

C) behavioral

34) Use the ________ to develop effective responses to behavioral questions.
A) strategic dilemma
B) case-based methodology
C) situational
D) summary
E) STAR approach

E) STAR approach

35) For video interviews,
A) test your video setup beforehand and make sure you know how to use it.
B) play soft music in the background to eliminate noise from other sources.
C) maintain eye contact by looking at the face of the person you are interviewing with, not your webcam.
D) use the background of your interview space to show your personality and individuality.
E) refrain from making too many facial gestures.

A) test your video setup beforehand and make sure you know how to use it.

36) When you're participating in a video interview with a prospective employer,
A) make eye contact with the camera.
B) concentrate on your computer screen.
C) read from a carefully prepared script.
D) dim the lights in the room to minimize glare.
E) remember to dress comfortably.

A) make eye contact with the camera.

37) In addition to judging whether you can handle the responsibilities of a position, the other essential question that employers want to answer during the interview process is
A) the minimum salary you would be willing to accept.
B) what you studied in college.
C) which previous positions you have held.
D) whether you will be a good fit with the organization and the target position.
E) how soon you can be promoted to a leadership position.

D) whether you will be a good fit with the organization and the target position.

38) In addition to other types of testing, most companies will conduct a ________ to review your credit record, driving record, criminal history, and verify your education.
A) knowledge test
B) online search
C) background check
D) substance test
E) cognitive test

C) background check

40) Employers use ________ tests to ensure compatibility with the job and the company's values.
A) acuity, perception, and moral
B) personality flaw
C) job skills and interest
D) mental and physical capacity
E) integrity, personality, and cognitive

E) integrity, personality, and cognitive

41) A major goal during the interview process should be
A) to get an offer.
B) to find the right match for your goals and capabilities.
C) to find the position that pays the most.
D) to fill an available job opening.
E) to look first to the largest companies for job openings, then consider smaller companies if those don't work out.

B) to find the right match for your goals and capabilities.

42) An employment interview is
A) an unstructured dialogue with a representative from a potential employer.
B) an easy way for you to learn about the company's operations and markets.
C) a formal meeting during which you and the interviewer ask questions and exchange information.
D) a session in which the interviewer talks and you listen.
E) a well-rehearsed exchange of information between peers.

C) a formal meeting during which you and the interviewer ask questions and exchange information.

43) With behavioral interview questions, you'll be asked to
A) answer a specific sequence of questions.
B) perform work-related tasks in a simulated workplace environment.
C) deal with a number of questions intended to upset you.
D) relate specific incidents or experiences from your past.
E) observe a focus group and then respond to questions about what you saw.

D) relate specific incidents or experiences from your past.

44) During an interview, look for opportunities to show information beyond your résumé, such as
A) personal interests outside of work.
B) a willingness to succeed at all cost.
C) competitiveness, drive, and ruthlessness.
D) teamwork, ethics, and a positive attitude.
E) popularity, bias, and independence.

D) teamwork, ethics, and a positive attitude.

45) During the selection stage of the interview process, you should
A) ask the interviewer when you can start the job.
B) disparage other candidates.
C) allow the interviewer to ask all of the questions.
D) monopolize the conversation by telling your favorite stories.
E) relate your skills and experience to the organization's needs.

E) relate your skills and experience to the organization's needs.

57) Searching LinkedIn to learn about the managers you will meet with in an upcoming interview
A) is unethical, since LinkedIn profiles are private.
B) is acceptable as long as you reveal that you have done it.
C) requires that you ask their permission beforehand.
D) can make it easier for you to build rapport with your interviewers.
E) hinders your chances of success by making you seem desperate for employment.

D) can make it easier for you to build rapport with your interviewers.

58) When responding to questions during a job interview, you should
A) respond in a way that lets you talk about your strengths only.
B) look for opportunities to frame your answers as brief stories rather than simple declarative answers.
C) limit yourself to yes or no answers only.
D) respond with declarative statements.
E) ask the interviewer to clarify what type of response they are really looking for.

B) look for opportunities to frame your answers as brief stories rather than simple declarative answers.

59) For most interviews, asking your own questions is
A) necessary only if you are interviewing for a management position.
B) risky and a bad idea unless you are certain the interview is going well.
C) just as important as answering the employer's questions effectively.
D) usually viewed as a sign of arrogance—after all, the employer is in charge.
E) helpful only when you are interviewing for a job at a large organization.

C) just as important as answering the employer's questions effectively.

60) When you're responding to questions during an interview, you're more likely to answer them successfully and avoid filler phrases if you
A) begin speaking before the employer finishes asking the question.
B) reply in a terse, matter-of-fact style throughout the interview.
C) pause for a moment before answering each question.
D) treat all questions as an opportunity to clarify your personal preferences.
E) have well-practiced responses to standard questions.

C) pause for a moment before answering each question.

61) When choosing the clothing you'll wear for a workplace interview, the best general strategy is to
A) dress for a casual dress work environment.
B) showcase a bold statement piece.
C) wear whatever best expresses your professional personality.
D) research the expectations in the industry; if in doubt, dress conservatively.
E) wear a bold color that shows confidence and leadership.

D) research the expectations in the industry; if in doubt, dress conservatively.

63) When going to a job interview,
A) bring a printed copy of your résumé and samples of your work, if appropriate.
B) assume the interviewer will already have a copy of your résumé.
C) being more than 10 minutes late is unacceptable.
D) do not engage in conversation with others until the interview is complete.
E) bring your résumé on your phone.

A) bring a printed copy of your résumé and samples of your work, if appropriate.

64) Researching an organization before an interview
A) will save time during the interview, as the employer won't have to ask as many questions.
B) is a bad idea, as it will limit the interviewers' opportunity to sell the organization.
C) will show you understand the importance of investigation and analysis.
D) allows you to tell the interviewer how much you know that they may not.
E) leads to fewer questions about you, and more questions about the goals of the organization.

C) will show you understand the importance of investigation and analysis.

65) One of the best ways to learn about the managers you will be interviewing with is through
A) Facebook.
B) industry related blogs.
C) competitor websites.
D) LinkedIn.
E) company websites.

D) LinkedIn.

67) The foundation of your interview should be
A) confidence and competence.
B) manners and poise.
C) skills and ability.
D) dress and professionalism.
E) eagerness to learn and flexibility.

A) confidence and competence.

68) When you're staging mock interviews to polish your interview style, pay attention to
A) incorporating humor.
B) taking the lead during the discussion of your skills and abilities.
C) keeping your answers short and to the point.
D) keeping answers general enough to be sure they can be appropriate to almost any type of question.
E) making sure all answers are clear, concise, and on-topic.

E) making sure all answers are clear, concise, and on-topic.

74) Why is it important not to let your guard down during small talk that may preceded the more formal interview questioning?
A) These exchanges are as important as structured questions; interviewers assess your professionalism from first contact.
B) Most employers will try to hit you with trick questions at this point.
C) You don't want to come across as too familiar or friendly before you get to know the person.
D) Most interviewers want you to take over the conversation.
E) Your interview is probably being recorded.

A) These exchanges are as important as structured questions; interviewers assess your professionalism from first contact.

75) The longest phase of a job interview is usually
A) the warm-up.
B) the question-and-answer stage.
C) the close.
D) the interchange.
E) the résumé building

B) the question-and-answer stage.

76) An employer can legally ask you questions about
A) when you graduated from high school.
B) if working on weekends would conflict with your religion.
C) if you have ever been arrested.
D) your age.
E) your legal right to work in the United States.

E) your legal right to work in the United States.

78) When a job interviewer indicates the interview is coming to a close, you should
A) prolong the interview in order to ingratiate yourself with the interviewer.
B) say your good-byes and stand up to leave.
C) thank the interviewer, express your interest in the job, and try to pin down what will happen next.
D) ask the interviewer to analyze your performance.
E) explain that you really need a job offer before you depart.

C) thank the interviewer, express your interest in the job, and try to pin down what will happen next.

79) On your second or third visit to an organization, if you haven't been offered the job, you may
A) ask whether you did anything wrong during the interview.
B) ask how many more interviews will take place.
C) ask tactfully when you can expect to learn of the decision.
D) ask if repeated interviews are standard policy and try to find out why.
E) pretend that you have another job offer and push for an immediate decision.

C) ask tactfully when you can expect to learn of the decision.

80) If you're asked about your salary requirements and aren't ready to name a figure,
A) you can say that you would expect compensation in line with industry norms for someone with your experience.
B) propose the highest figure you can think of.
C) tell them you will do some research and get back to them.
D) ask for a salary in the middle range of what current employees get.
E) ask what kind of salary you can expect after three years, and use that as the basis for negotiations.

A) you can say that you would expect compensation in line with industry norms for someone with your experience.

81) During the warm-up phase of the interview, ________ is crucial in projecting confidence and professionalism.
A) body language
B) the initial greeting
C) how you respond to the receptionist
D) asking questions about the position
E) presenting your qualifications

A) body language

82) During which phase of the interview process are you most likely to be asked specific questions about how you handled particular situations in previous jobs?
A) The warm up
B) The question-and-answer stage
C) The initial screening
D) When references are being checked
E) The close

B) The question-and-answer stage

83) Which of these is a good line of questioning for a candidate to pursue during an interview?
A) The expected salary offer
B) When the company expects to extend an offer
C) What the company is looking for in a new employee
D) The major competition of the company
E) Critical weaknesses of the company and how the company plans to address them

C) What the company is looking for in a new employee

84) During the close of the interview, be sure to
A) ask the interviewer if he or she has any other questions for you.
B) try to identify why you were asked illegal questions.
C) check your watch and see if the interview lasted at least 45 minutes.
D) emphasize your value to the organization.
E) ask what you did well, and what should be worked on for the next round of interviews.

D) emphasize your value to the organization.

85) During the question-and-answer stage of an interview,
A) stick with one-word, yes-or-no answers.
B) let the interviewer lead the conversation.
C) respond to all questions immediately.
D) don't ask any questions of your own.
E) be assertive and control the conversation.

B) let the interviewer lead the conversation.

86) One advantage to maintaining interview notes is
A) to ensure answers are consistent between the hiring manager and Human Resources.
B) to look prepared and professional.
C) to have something to do with your hands during the interview, especially when you are nervous.
D) to help you decide which company is the right fit for you when you are considering various job offers.
E) to track key information, including potentially illegal questions.

D) to help you decide which company is the right fit for you when you are considering various job offers.

87) Which of the following would best support your ability to negotiate a starting salary?
A) Wearing business attire during the negotiation meeting
B) Understanding all your strengths and weaknesses
C) Understanding market demand for your skill set
D) Dollar amounts of offers you have turned down
E) Your ability to call in a personal favor with those you know in the organization

C) Understanding market demand for your skill set

90) Within two days after an employment interview, you should
A) have a friend call to see whether you got the job.
B) write a follow-up message (using the format for persuasive messages) and include another copy of your résumé.
C) follow up with a short follow-up message, using a tone that's positive while reinforcing why you are a good fit.
D) assume that you didn't get the job if you haven't heard anything.
E) call the employer and say you have received some other job offers (even if you have not).

C) follow up with a short follow-up message, using a tone that's positive while reinforcing why you are a good fit.

91) You could send a ________ after an interview if you haven't received the interviewer's decision by the promised date or within two weeks.
A) thank you note
B) formal complaint
C) message of inquiry
D) message of intent
E) prospecting message

C) message of inquiry

92) When you write a letter of acceptance,
A) begin with a summary of your skills.
B) begin by accepting the position and expressing thanks.
C) explain that you will need to run the offer past your attorney first.
D) ask if the company has any room to negotiate salary.
E) use the AIDA model to pitch your skills.

B) begin by accepting the position and expressing thanks.

93) Staying in contact with a prospective employer after an interview
A) can be seen as troublesome by the employer.
B) is not necessary for at least 4 weeks.
C) should only be done by phone.
D) might be construed as nagging.
E) shows that you are sincerely interested in the job.

E) shows that you are sincerely interested in the job.

94) Writing a follow-up message shortly after the interview, even an interview that went poorly,
A) is an opportunity to tell them of additional research you conducted.
B) is an opportunity to outshine other candidates.
C) is unnecessary unless you interviewed with the hiring manager.
D) provides a chance to modify an answer given during the interview.
E) is a chance to press for a higher salary offer.

D) provides a chance to modify an answer given during the interview.

95) Job offers and the acceptance of the offer
A) can be done over the phone.
B) should be done via Skype.
C) can constitute legally binding contracts.
D) can be backed out of if a better candidate or job comes along.
E) are legally binding for the employer, but not the candidate.

C) can constitute legally binding contracts.

96) If you write a letter to decline the offer of a job,
A) use the direct approach.
B) use the indirect approach.
C) do not use email.
D) follow the AIDA plan.
E) explain why, in detail, you are not accepting the position.

B) use the indirect approach.

97) When terminating a job with a current employer, your letter of resignation
A) should include at least two weeks' notice.
B) does not have to be in writing.
C) should indicate what led you to look for a new position.
D) should include ways to help the company do better in the future.
E) should indicate where your new job is, what the responsibilities are, and what salary you were offered.

A) should include at least two weeks' notice.

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3 answers

QUESTION

Wi-Fi is a trademark used to brand products that belong to the WMAN devices.(true or false)

2 answers

QUESTION

Members of the anthozoan subclasses Zoantharia and Ceriantipatharia have a(n)------ body plan, with parts occurring in multiples of ----------, whereas members of subclass Octocorallia have a(n) body ---------- plan, with parts occurring in multiples of ----------- .

2 answers

QUESTION

Professor Smith was interested in reporting the reality of the experiences of teenage runaways living on the streets in their own terms. Smith is probably most interested in:

10 answers

How can you make website information easier for the reader to absorb?

You can improve the readability of your online content by making sure that readers can "skim" it for the information they need. Begin by using the inverted pyramid style of writing; that is, cover the most important information briefly at first and then gradually reveal successive layers of detail.

What is the basic purpose of informational reports?

- Even though all reports present information, simply put, the purpose of Informational Reports is to provide information in an organized, objective way, without analysis or recommendations; in other words, to report the facts. The writer is then expected to summarize that information.

Which type of report offers data and facts without any analysis or recommendations?

Informational reports provide data, facts, feedback, and other types of information without analysis or recommendations.

Why is writing analytical reports more challenging than writing informational reports?

Writing analytical reports presents a greater challenge than writing informational reports, for three reasons. First, you're doing more than simply delivering information; you're also analyzing a problem or an opportunity and presenting your conclusions.