An interest inventory compares an applicants current interests with the interests of ________.

1) Which of the following terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards?
A) employment malpractice
B) negligent hiring
C) unreliable testing
D) improper hiring
E) invalid screening

Answer: B Explanation: Negligent hiring means hiring employees with criminal records or other problems who then use access to customers’ homes (or similar opportunities) to commit crimes. Employers can be sued for negligent hiring.

2) A reliable employment test will most likely yield ________.
A) consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test
B) improved scores when a person takes the same test more than once in a single day
C) high scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test on different occasions
D) similar scores when two different people are administered the test at different times
E) similar scores when two different people are administered the test at the same time

Answer: A Explanation: Reliability is a test’s first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.

3) If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________.
A) valid
B) invalid
C) reliable
D) unreliable
E) consistent

Answer: D Explanation: Reliability is a test’s first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. If a person scores 70 on an intelligence test on a Monday and 110 when retested on Tuesday, you probably wouldn’t have much faith in the test.

4) If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________.
A) valid
B) invalid
C) reliable
D) unreliable
E) inconsistent

Answer: C Explanation: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. Scores of 78 and 79 on the same test suggest that the test is reliable because it is measuring with consistency.

5) Which of the following terms refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with alternate forms of the same test?
A) equivalency
B) reliability
C) expectancy
D) objectivity
E) validity

Answer: B Explanation: Reliability is a test’s first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.

6) Which of the following best describes how to use a retest estimate to assess reliability?
A) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to effectively perform the job in question
B) administer the same test to different people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
C) administer different tests to a group of people and compare the range of collected test scores
D) administer the same test to a group of people and compare the range of collected test scores
E) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with their scores at time 1

Answer: E Explanation: There are several ways to estimate consistency or reliability. You could administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time, comparing their test scores at time two with their scores at time one; this would be a retest estimate.

7) Which of the following measures reliability by administering two different yet comparable tests and then comparing the two test scores?
A) retest estimate
B) equivalent form estimate
C) internal consistency assessment
D) internal comparison estimate
E) criterion validity measurement

Answer: B Explanation: An equivalent form estimate involves administering a test and then administering what experts believe to be an equivalent test later. The internal reliability or consistency of the test is measured by an internal comparison estimate. A retest estimate involves administering the same test.

8) ________ is used as an estimate of reliability and involves administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses to the items vary together.
A) Retest estimate
B) Equivalent form estimate
C) Content validity estimate
D) Internal comparison estimate
E) Criterion validity estimate

Answer: D Explanation: A test’s internal consistency is another reliability measure. For example, a psychologist includes 10 items on a test of vocational interests, believing that they all measure, in various ways, the test taker’s interest in working outdoors. You administer the test and then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to these 10 items vary together. This would provide a measure of the internal reliability of the test and is known as an internal comparison estimate.

9) All of the following are used for estimating reliability of a test EXCEPT ________.
A) internal consistency
B) retest estimate
C) internal comparison estimate
D) equivalent form estimate
E) content validity measurement

Answer: E Explanation: Validity indicates whether a test is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring, while reliability indicates whether a test is measuring something consistently. Internal comparison estimates are used to measure the internal consistency of a test. Retest estimates and internal comparison estimates also measure reliability.

10) When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which of the following is most likely being measured?
A) test validity
B) retest estimate
C) equivalent form
D) internal consistency
E) criterion validity

Answer: D Explanation: A test’s internal consistency is measured by making internal comparison estimates. Internal consistency explains why apparently repetitive questions are found on some test questionnaires.

11) The unreliability of a test may be explained by all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) poor sampling of question material
B) lack of equivalence between tests
C) inconsistent testing conditions
D) failure to predict job performance
E) lack of internal consistency

Answer: D Explanation: Many things could cause a test to be unreliable. For example, the questions may do a poor job of sampling the material or there might be errors due to changes in the testing conditions. Poor internal consistency or a lack of equivalence between tests would also explain a test’s unreliability. Validity rather than reliability refers to a test’s ability to measure what is intended to be measured, such as job performance.

12) Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was designed?
A) reliability
B) relevancy
C) validity
D) expectancy
E) consistency

Answer: C Explanation: Test validity answers the question "Does this test measure what it’s supposed to measure?" Validity refers to the correctness of the inferences that we can make based on the test and the accuracy with which a test or interview fulfills the function it was designed to fill.

13) Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be accomplished by showing that ________.
A) tasks performed on the test are general enough to apply to any type of job
B) higher test scores are statistically equivalent to proven, long-term job success
C) conditions under which the test is administered resemble the work situation
D) scores on the test are both internally and externally reliable
E) administered tests provide equivalent questions and scenarios

Answer: C Explanation: Demonstrating content validity can be accomplished by showing that the tasks the person performs on the test are really a comprehensive and random sample of the tasks performed on the job. Content validity can also be shown by demonstrating that the conditions under which the person takes the test resemble the work situation, although this is not always easy.

14) The first step in the test validation process is ________.
A) creating a test battery
B) developing an expectancy chart
C) administering tests
D) analyzing the job
E) cross-validating

Answer: D Explanation: The first step in validating a test is to analyze the job and write job descriptions and job specifications. The point is to specify the human traits and skills you believe are required for adequate job performance. Choosing tests and perhaps creating a test battery are part of the second step, which is followed by test administration. Relating test scores and criteria with an expectancy chart is the next step. Cross-validating is the final step in the process.

15) Which of the following is a graph that shows the relationship between test scores and job performance for a group of people?
A) performance standard
B) job analysis chart
C) digital dashboard
D) competency model
E) expectancy chart

Answer: E Explanation: If there is a correlation between test and job performance, you can develop an expectancy chart during the process of validating an employment test. An expectancy chart presents the relationship between test scores and job performance graphically.

16) What is the primary disadvantage of using concurrent validation?
A) Current employees may not be representative of new applicants.
B) Current employees have not been employed for a significant time.
C) New applicants are recent college graduates with limited experience.
D) Limited correlation exists between high test scores and job performance.
E) Test batteries have not been administered by professional industrial psychologists.

Answer: A Explanation: With concurrent validation, the test scores of current employees are compared with their current job performance. The disadvantage is that current employees may not be representative of new applicants because current employees have already had on-the-job training.

17) ________ validation is considered the most dependable method of validating an employment test.
A) Applicable
B) Subjective
C) Predictive
D) Concurrent
E) Statistical

Answer: C Explanation: Predictive validation is a more dependable way to validate a test than concurrent validation, which is the other method. With predictive validation, a test is administered to applicants before hiring. Applicants are hired using only existing selection techniques, not the results of the new tests. After they have been on the job for some time, measure their performance and compare it to their earlier test scores. You can then determine whether you could have used their performance on the new test to predict their subsequent job performance.

18) The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) using a new sample of employees
B) administering additional tests
C) assessing predictive validation
D) evaluating the relationship between scores and performance
E) developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance

Answer: E Explanation: Cross-validating involves administering additional tests to a new sample of employees. This final step also requires an assessment of predictive validation and an evaluation of the relationship between scores and job performance. An expectancy chart might be developed but not a scatter plot.

19) Firms should most likely use certified psychologists when developing and validating selection tests in order to ________.
A) protect the confidentiality of the firm
B) demonstrate familiarity with privacy laws
C) ensure compliance with EEO laws
D) persuade applicants of testing legitimacy
E) use scores for benchmarking purposes

Answer: C Explanation: Firms should use a certified psychologist to develop and validate screening tests because of the EEO and ethical issues involved with testing. Selection tests should be consistent with equal employment laws, ethical, and considerate of the test taker’s privacy.

20) According to the American Psychological Association, all of the following are rights of test takers EXCEPT the right to expect ________.
A) confidentiality of test results
B) informed consent regarding the use of test results
C) scores to be interpreted by qualified individuals
D) tests to be the only selection tools for a job
E) fairness of the test for all who take it

Answer: D Explanation: Tests should be used as supplements and not be the only selection tool. Under the American Psychological Association’s (APA) standard for educational and psychological tests, test takers have the the right to the confidentiality of test results, the right to informed consent regarding use of these results, the right to expect that only people qualified to interpret the scores will have access to them, and the right to expect the test is fair to all.

21) According to a survey conducted by the American Management Association, most employers who administer tests to applicants are measuring ________.
A) job skills
B) aptitudes
C) psychological behaviors
D) interpersonal behaviors
E) ethical opinions

Answer: A Explanation: About 41% of companies that the American Management Association surveyed tested applicants for basic skills (defined as the ability to read instructions, write reports, and do arithmetic adequate to perform common workplace tasks). About 67% of the respondents required employees to take job skills tests, and 29% required some form of psychological measurement.

22) For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm’s success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to
standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests.

Which of the following supports the argument that Golden Creamery should use a certified psychologist to develop preemployment tests?
A) Golden Creamery needs to comply with all federal and state laws.
B) Golden Creamery competitors use psychologists for test development.
C) Golden Creamery strives to create a conscientious organizational culture.
D) Golden Creamery employees either work part-time or on flexible schedules.
E) Golden Creamery needs to ensure that tests are legally and ethically appropriate.

Answer: E Explanation: Using a psychologist to develop and validate tests will help Golden Creamery remain protected both legally and ethically. Firms are not required by law to use a psychologist for test development.

23) For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm’s success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests.

Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that Golden Creamery should require franchise owners to use the firm’s preemployment tests?
A) Hourly employees at Golden Creamery stores typically remain with the company long enough to be promoted to management positions.
B) Golden Creamery franchise owners pay an initial franchise fee and receive a percentage of sales royalties in return.
C) Annual turnover rates for hourly employees of Golden Creamery stores are three times the rate of comparable businesses.
D) Individuals interested in working at a Golden Creamery store can complete online applications on the firm’s Web site.
E) Golden Creamery uses a series of videos to train new hires as well as a mentoring program that has proven successful in the past.

Answer: C Explanation: High turnover rates suggest that Golden Creamery has problems hiring the most appropriate employees, which supports the implementation of a testing program. If hourly workers remained at the firm for a long time, then that would suggest the firm’s current hiring practices do not need to be modified.

24) For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm’s success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the
best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests.

Which of the following questions is most relevant to Golden Creamery’s decision to implement preemployment testing for all franchises?
A) Should Golden Creamery use internal or external sources for job candidates?
B) How will Golden Creamery ensure the confidentiality of an applicant’s test results?
C) How does testing correlate with Golden Creamery’s mission and vision statements?
D) What is the best way for Golden Creamery to recruit both hourly and salaried employees?
E) What is the role of testing in Golden Creamery’s strategic performance management system?

Answer: B Explanation: Test takers have the right to the confidentiality of test results, so it is important that Golden Creamery develops a plan for maintaining privacy prior to administering tests. Choices A and D relate to recruiting efforts rather than testing. Although a firm’s mission and vision statements guide its general direction, such statements are not directly relevant to testing.

25) ________ tests include assessments of general reasoning ability and of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning.
A) Motor ability
B) Personality
C) Achievement
D) Cognitive
E) Physical ability

Answer: D Explanation: Cognitive tests include tests of general reasoning ability (intelligence) and tests of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. Employers may also use tests to measure an applicants motor and physical abilities. Achievement tests measure what someone has learned, and personality tests measure aspects of an applicant’s personality, such as stability, motivation, and introversion.

26) Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability are called ________.
A) standardized tests
B) intelligence tests
C) achievement tests
D) personality tests
E) comprehensive tests

Answer: B Explanation: Intelligence (IQ) tests are tests of general intellectual abilities. They measure not a single trait but rather a range of abilities, including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability. Achievement tests measure what someone has learned, while aptitude tests measure a person’s specific mental abilities.

27) All of the following are measured by aptitude tests EXCEPT ________.
A) deductive reasoning
B) verbal comprehension
C) numerical ability
D) temperament
E) memory

Answer: D Explanation: Temperament and other interpersonal skills are measured by personality tests. Aptitude tests measure deductive and inductive reasoning, verbal comprehension, numerical ability, and memory.

28) As part of the selection process for a position at UPS, Jack has been asked to lift weights and jump rope. Which of the following is most likely being measured by UPS?
A) interpersonal skills
B) cognitive skills
C) physical abilities
D) achievements
E) interests

Answer: C Explanation: Physical abilities are measured by testing an applicant’s static strength (lifting weights), dynamic strength, body coordination (jumping rope), and stamina. A UPS worker needs to have such skills to perform the job.

29) ________ tests measure finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time.
A) Motor ability
B) Personality
C) Achievement
D) Cognitive
E) Interest

Answer: A Explanation: Some jobs require applicants be tested for motor abilities, such as finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and (if hiring pilots) reaction time. For example, the Crawford Small Parts Dexterity Test measures the speed and accuracy of simple judgment as well as the speed of finger, hand, and arm movements.

30) All of the following are most likely assessed on personality tests EXCEPT ________.
A) introversion
B) reasoning
C) sensitivity
D) motivation
E) emotional stability

Answer: B Explanation: Reasoning skills are tested with aptitude tests. Personality tests measure introversion, sensitivity, motivation, and emotional stability among other qualities.

31) According to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired for their ________.
A) physical limitations
B) lack of aptitude
C) nonperformance
D) psychological issues
E) cognitive abilities

Answer: C Explanation: A person’s cognitive and physical abilities alone seldom explain his or her job performance. Most people are hired based on qualifications, but most are fired for nonperformance, which is usually the "result of personal characteristics, such as attitude, motivation, and especially, temperament."

32) House-Tree-Person and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of ________ tests.
A) achievement
B) intelligence
C) apperception
D) self-reported
E) projective

Answer: E Explanation: Projective techniques include Make a Picture Story (MAPS), House-Tree-Person (H-T-P), and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test. With projective tests, the psychologist presents an ambiguous stimulus (like an inkblot or clouded picture) to the person who then reacts to it. Since the pictures are ambiguous, the person supposedly projects into the picture his or her attitudes.

33) All of the following are examples of self-reported personality tests EXCEPT ________.
A) Guilford-Zimmerman Survey
B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
C) Make a Picture Story
D) Wonderlic Personal Characteristics Inventory
E) Sales Achievement Predictor

Answer: C Explanation: Make a Picture Story is a projective personality test. Guilford-Zimmerman Survey, MMPI, Wonderlic Personal Characteristics Inventory, and Sales Achievement Predictor are self-reported personality tests which are filled out by the applicants.

34) The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) neuroticism
B) optimism
C) extroversion
D) conscientiousness
E) agreeableness

Answer: B Explanation: Industrial psychologists often focus on the "big five" personality dimensions: extraversion, emotional stability/neuroticism, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience. Optimism is not one of the big five.

35) Which of the following personality dimensions represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility?
A) neuroticism
B) extroversion
C) conscientiousness
D) agreeableness
E) openness to experience

Answer: A Explanation: Neuroticism relates to anxiety and insecurity. Extraversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous. Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. Conscientiousness refers to achievement and dependability.

36) ________ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active.
A) Neuroticism
B) Extroversion
C) Conscientiousness
D) Agreeableness
E) Openness to experience

Answer: B Explanation: Extraversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous. Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. Conscientiousness refers to achievement and dependability, and neuroticism relates to anxiety and insecurity.

37) Mike Simmons has recently applied for a position with Pfizer Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait most likely has the strongest correlation to Mike’s success as a pharmaceutical sales representative?
A) neuroticism
B) extroversion
C) agreeableness
D) conscientiousness
E) openness to experience

Answer: B Explanation: Extraversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active, which are necessary characteristics for sales reps. Studies have shown that extraversion correlates to success in sales and management jobs.

38) Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional?
A) agreeableness
B) extroversion
C) conscientiousness
D) neuroticism
E) openness to experience

Answer: E Explanation: Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous. Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. Conscientiousness refers to achievement and dependability, and neuroticism relates to anxiety and insecurity.

39) The tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle is the personality dimension known as ________.
A) neuroticism
B) extroversion
C) conscientiousness
D) agreeableness
E) openness to experience

Answer: D Explanation: Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. Neuroticism, extraversion, conscientiousness, and openness to experience are the other personality traits known as the big five.

40) Which personality characteristic is comprised of both achievement and dependability?
A) neuroticism
B) extroversion
C) conscientiousness
D) agreeableness
E) openness to experience

Answer: C Explanation: Conscientiousness is comprised of two related facets: achievement and dependability. According to research, conscientiousness has been the most consistent and universal predictor of job performance.

41) While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which personality trait is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs?
A) openness to experience
B) conscientiousness
C) extroversion
D) agreeableness
E) neuroticism

Answer: B Explanation: According to research, conscientiousness has been the most consistent and universal predictor of job performance. Conscientiousness is comprised of two related facets: achievement and dependability.

42) Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employee that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin’s core values — honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge — serve as the basis for all of the firm’s decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee’s uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process.

Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that Red Robin should use personality tests in the employee selection process?
A) Red Robin employees receive extensive training and are provided with opportunities to be promoted to management positions.
B) Red Robin encourages employees to participate in the firm’s environmental stewardship program to show community support.
C) Red Robin seeks outgoing, motivated, and compassionate employees to enhance the experience of its customers.
D) Red Robin offers monetary incentives to managers who meet quarterly sales targets and exceed performance expectations.
E) Red Robin desires employees with extensive knowledge of the restaurant industry and at least two years of experience serving customers.

Answer: C Explanation: Personality traits, as uncovered by personality tests, often correlate to job performance. Red Robin seeks employees that match the firm’s core values of honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge, and personality tests would indicate an applicant’s level of extraversion and openness to experiences.

43) Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employee that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin’s core values — honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge — serve as the basis for all of the firm’s decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee’s uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process.

Which of the following, if true, would undermine the argument that Red Robin should use achievement tests in the employee selection process?
A) Red Robin receives so many applications that it only considers individuals with previous job experience in the restaurant industry.
B) Red Robin provides a two-week training session to all new hires, which are frequently college students with little experience in the restaurant industry.
C) Red Robin expects applicants for management positions to understand current EEO laws and be aware of ADA requirements.
D) Red Robin requires applicants for cashier positions to take typing tests to assess their speed at the cash register.
E) Red Robin compares the interests of applicants with those of people already working in the restaurant industry as servers and bartenders.

Answer: B Explanation: Achievement tests measure what someone has learned and an applicant’s job knowledge In addition to job knowledge, achievement tests measure the applicant’s abilities. Choices B, C, and D support the use of achievement tests because Red Robin expects applicants to have a certain level of skill or knowledge. Choice E is related to interest inventories. Choice B is correct because Red Robin will train new hires and does not need to assess their job knowledge.

44) An interest inventory compares an applicant’s current interests with the interests of ________.
A) retired workers
B) younger individuals
C) other people in the same industry
D) other people in various occupations
E) managers and executives in the firm

Answer: D Explanation: Interest inventories compare an applicant’s interests with those of people in various occupations. Thus, a person who takes the Strong-Campbell Interests Inventory would receive a report comparing his or her interests to those of people already in occupations like accounting, engineering, or management.

45) Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge?
A) aptitude tests
B) interest inventories
C) achievement tests
D) work samples
E) projective tests

Answer: C Explanation: Achievement tests measure what someone has learned. They measure your "job knowledge" in areas like economics, marketing, or human resources. Projective tests measure personality, while aptitude tests measure an applicant’s specific mental abilities.

46) With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________.
A) asked to submit examples of projects they have completed for other employers
B) tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest
C) tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to several positions in a firm
D) asked to respond to questions about how they would perform various tasks
E) given video-based situational interviews to assess their critical thinking skills

Answer: B Explanation: The work sampling technique tries to predict job performance by requiring job candidates to perform one or more samples of the job’s basic tasks. An observer monitors performance on each task and rates the applicant’s performance.

47) Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique?
A) applicants find it difficult to fake answers
B) uncovers information about an applicant’s personality
C) compares an applicant’s past job performance with future success
D) applicants can evaluate their own performance
E) fine motor skills are accurately assessed

Answer: A Explanation: Work sampling has several advantages. It measures actual job tasks, so it’s harder to fake answers. Work sampling doesn’t delve into the applicant’s personality, so there’s almost no chance of applicants viewing it as an invasion of privacy. Fine motor skills are not necessarily part of the work sampling unless such skills are related to the specific job.

48) A(n) ________ is a simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance.
A) work sampling event
B) video-based situation
C) management assessment center
D) applicant personality test
E) miniature job evaluation

Answer: C Explanation: A management assessment center is a 2- to 3-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic management tasks (like making presentations) under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate’s leadership potential. The center itself may be a simple conference room, but more likely a special room with a one-way mirror to facilitate observation.

49) Which of the following is an indirect method for predicting job performance during the selection process?
A) miniature job training and evaluation
B) video-based simulation technique
C) management assessment center
D) work sampling technique
E) intelligence tests

Answer: E Explanation: Intelligence tests measure general intellectual abilities such as memory, vocabulary, and numerical ability, so they are an indirect method for predicting job performance. In contrast, miniature job training, management assessment centers, work sampling, and video-based simulations directly assess job performance by requiring applicants to complete actual tasks that would occur on the job.

50) Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) objective tests
B) leaderless group discussion
C) motor skills assessments
D) individual presentations
E) management games

Answer: C Explanation: Management assessment center tasks include the in-basket, leaderless group discussion, management games, individual presentations, objective tests, and interviews. Motor skills are not assessed.

51) Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process?
A) Development costs are very low.
B) Minimal time is required for test administration.
C) Test development responsibilities are shared by managers.
D) Industrial psychologists are involved in the testing process.
E) Peers are effectively able to predict the success of applicants.

Answer: E Explanation: Management assessment centers are expensive to develop, take much longer than conventional tests, require managers acting as assessors, and often require psychologists. However, studies suggest they are worth it. because peers’ evaluations of candidates during the center are especially useful.

52) Work sampling, miniature job training, and video-based tests are examples of ________.
A) management assessment centers
B) intelligence tests
C) personality tests
D) situational tests
E) interests inventories

Answer: D Explanation: Situational tests, such as work sampling, miniature job training, and video-based tests, require examinees to respond to situations representative of the job. Management assessment centers are also situational tests.

53) Which of the following terms refers to training candidates to perform several of the job’s tasks and then assessing the candidates’ performance prior to hire?
A) achievement testing
B) video-based simulation
C) work sampling technique
D) management assessment center
E) miniature job training

Answer: E Explanation: Miniature job training and evaluation means training candidates to perform several of the job’s tasks, and then evaluating the candidates’ performance prior to hire. The approach assumes that a person who demonstrates that he or she can learn and perform the sample of tasks will be able to learn and perform the job itself. Work sampling and management assessment centers involve situational tests rather than actual job tasks.

54) Carter Vacuums needs to hire 20 new employees to fill positions at its manufacturing facility. The HR department wants to minimize the costs related to screening applicants but also wants the assessment method to be highly valid to the specific jobs. Which of the following would be the best choice for Carter Vacuums?
A) structured interviews
B) personality tests
C) cognitive ability tests
D) assessment centers
E) work samples

Answer: C Explanation: Cognitive ability tests are highly valid and the costs related to developing and administering the tests are low. Structured interviews, work samples, and assessment centers have high validity, but they are also costly to develop and administer. Personality tests have low validity, although they are not costly.

55) Blue Bay Hotels is in the process of modifying the assessment methods the company uses to hire new employees. In the past, the hotel chain has been accused by minority organizations of violating EEO laws in its hiring practices. Which of the following applicant assessment methods would most likely have the LEAST adverse impact on minorities?
A) aptitude tests
B) situational judgment tests
C) cognitive ability tests
D) work sampling technique
E) job knowledge tests

Answer: D Explanation: Work samples have a low adverse impact on applicants. Cognitive ability tests, also known as aptitude tests, and job knowledge tests have a high adverse impact against minorities. Situational judgment tests have a moderate adverse impact on minorities.

56) Employers most likely conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate’s ________.
A) age
B) marital status
C) military service
D) ethnic background
E) disability history

Answer: C Explanation: Employers verify data regarding military service, employment history, education, and credit. An applicant’s age, marital status, ethnicity, and medical history or disabilities are considered irrelevant to hiring, and an employer may violate EEO laws by requesting such information.

57) According to surveys of HR managers, which of the following is most frequently verified during an employment background investigation?
A) age
B) references
C) credit ratings
D) marital status
E) driving records

Answer: B Explanation: Nearly 90% of HR managers reported conducting reference checks. Credit checks were performed by 35% of HR managers, while 56% investigated an applicant’s driving history. Age and marital status are irrelevant to hiring and asking questions about these subjects may lead to EEO violations.

58) Which of the following is the primary reason that firms conduct background investigations of job applicants?
A) adhere to legal hiring practices
B) improve pool of candidates
C) limit the number of applicants
D) uncover false information
E) report criminals to police

Answer: D Explanation: There are two main reasons to check backgrounds—to verify the applicant’s information (name and so forth) and to uncover damaging information, such as criminal activities or falsified information about education and experience.

59) Which selection tool is considered the LEAST useful by most HR managers?
A) interview
B) reference letters
C) application form
D) academic record
E) psychological tests

Answer: B Explanation: Most managers don’t find reference letters useful selection tools. Ranked from top to bottom, the tools were interview, application form, academic record, oral referral, aptitude and achievement tests, psychological tests, and reference letters.

60) A manager who gives a former employee a bad reference may be accused of ________ if the information is both false and harmful.
A) discrimination
B) privacy invasion
C) adverse impact
D) arbitration
E) defamation

Answer: E Explanation: A communication is defamatory if it is false and tends to harm the reputation of another by lowering the person in the estimation of the community or by deterring other persons from associating or dealing with him or her. Managers, supervisors, and employers can be sued for defamation if comments are found to be false and harmful.

61) Which of the following methods for gathering background information about a job applicant is NOT recommended because of potential legal violations?
A) searching social networking sites for posted information about the applicant
B) using a database to access information about the applicant’s credit history
C) asking former employers open-ended questions about the applicant
D) locating references other than the ones provided by the applicant
E) using a search engine to find information about the applicant

Answer: A Explanation: Using a search engine like Google is acceptable, but checking social networking sites raises legal issues, especially when done without the candidate’s prior approval. Using databases, interviewing former employers, and contacting references are recommended for finding useful information about an applicant.

62) According to state and federal laws, which of the following actions is NOT required of employers who check background information on applicants?
A) disclosing to the applicant that a credit report will be requested
B) certifying to the reporting agency of the employer’s legal compliance
C) providing copies of reports to the applicant if adverse action is considered
D) providing a detailed rationale explaining the reason for any adverse action
E) providing an applicant with notice that an adverse action will occur

Answer: D Explanation: Employers must disclose to the applicant that a report will be requested and certify with the reporting agency that the employer has the consent of the applicant. If adverse action, such as withdrawing an employment offer, is being considered or occurs, then the employer must provide the applicant with a copy of the report and serve the applicant notice. A detailed rationale is not required.

63) In which of the following situations is it NOT legal to require an applicant to take a polygraph test as part of the selection process?
A) electrical engineer at the Department of Energy
B) accounting clerk at the Department of Justice
C) pharmacist’s assistant at Walgreen’s
D) security guard at Wells Fargo Bank
E) cashier at J.C. Penney’s

Answer: E Explanation: Local, state, and federal government employers can use polygraphs, but state laws restrict many local and state governments. Private employers can use polygraph testing, but only under strictly limited circumstances, such as for security personnel or for positions with access to drugs. Cashiers at retail stores should not be asked to take polygraph tests.

64) What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and other forms of counterproductivity?
A) paper-and-pencil honesty tests
B) interest inventories
C) personality tests
D) graphology
E) handwriting analysis

Answer: A Explanation: Paper-and-pencil (or online) honesty tests are psychological tests designed to predict job applicants’ proneness to dishonesty and other forms of counterproductivity. Most measure attitudes regarding things like tolerance of others who steal, acceptance of rationalizations for theft, and admission of theft-related activities.

65) For an employer to administer a polygraph exam during an ongoing investigation of theft, an employer must do all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) demonstrate economic loss
B) prove that the accused had access to the property
C) document a reasonable suspicion prior to requesting a polygraph
D) explain the details of the investigation and the questions to be asked during the polygraph
E) subject all employees with access to the property in question to the same polygraph examination as the accused employee

Answer: E Explanation: To administer a polygraph test for an ongoing investigation, an employer must meet four standards. First, the employer must show that it suffered an economic loss or injury. Second, it must show that the employee in question had access to the property. Third, it must have a reasonable suspicion before asking the employee to take the polygraph. Fourth, the employee must receive the details of the investigation before the test, as well as the questions to be asked on the polygraph test. All employees are not required to take a polygraph.

66) Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________.
A) astrology
B) numerology
C) reasoning analysis
D) handwriting analysis
E) polygraph output assessment

Answer: D Explanation: Graphology refers to the use of handwriting analysis to determine the writer’s basic personality traits. Graphology thus has some resemblance to projective personality tests, although graphology’s validity is highly suspect.

67) What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims?
A) physical exams
B) personality tests
C) polygraph tests
D) substance abuse screening
E) fine motor skills assessments

Answer: A Explanation: Preemployment medical exams are used to verify that the applicant meets the position’s physical requirements, to discover any medical limitations you should consider in placing him or her, and to establish a baseline for future insurance or compensation claims.

68) Which of the following is true regarding substance abuse screening?
A) according to federal law, all employers must test all employees for illegal drugs
B) some urine sample tests cannot distinguish between legal and illegal substances
C) hair follicle tests provide less detailed information than urine samples
D) urine and hair follicle tests usually provide contradictory information
E) most urine sample tests measure degree of impairment

Answer: B Explanation: Some urine sample tests cannot tell the difference between legal and illegal substances, such as Advil and marijuana. Hair follicle testing produces more personal information than urinalysis, such as the length of time someone has abused drugs.

69) E-Verify is used by employers to ________.
A) access an applicant’s credit history
B) review an applicant’s employment records
C) file an applicant’s income tax information
D) determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S.
E) report an applicant’s work status to the U.S. government

Answer: D Explanation: E-Verify is the federal government’s voluntary electronic employment verification program used by many employers. Federal contractors are required to use E-Verify to determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S.

70) Applicant tracking systems are used by employers to ________.
A) develop work samples
B) implement EEO laws
C) develop specific job descriptions
D) verify a candidate’s U.S. citizenship
E) screen and rank candidates based on skills

Answer: E Explanation: Applicant tracking systems are used for screening and tracking candidates, compiling resumes, and assisting with applicant testing. Online testing can be handled by an ATS but not situational tests like work sampling.