You are the project manager of the OQH Project and are working with the project stakeholders to determine the project requirements. You and the stakeholders are discussing as many solutions to the project as possible. A recorder documents all of the solutions on a white board so everyone can see the ideas and how they may be related. After the solutions have been documented, you lead the group through a voting process to discuss and rank each idea and requirement that has been proposed. What is this requirements gathering called? Show A. Brainstorming B. Nominal group technique C. Affinity diagram creations D. Mind mapping B. This is an example of the nominal group technique, in which you ask for as many ideas and solutions as possible, and then rank the concepts to help guide the requirements development. A is incorrect because brainstorming is similar to this concept, but it does not include the ranking of the concepts identified. C is incorrect because affinity diagrams cluster ideas into similar groups for further analysis. D is incorrect because mind mapping shows the relationship between ideas but it does not rank them. You are the project manager for the HGD Project and will need as many inputs to the scope planning as possible. Mary, your project assistant, recommends that you use some of the organizational process assets to help with your project scope planning. Of the following, which one is not an organizational process asset? A. Organizational procedures B. Organizational policies C. WBS D. Historical information C. The WBS is not an organizational process asset. A, B, and D are incorrect choices because these responses are examples of organizational process assets. You are a project manager for your organization. In your role as the project manager, you are required to cross-train and coach your project team members. Sarah, a project manager in training, wants to know which project documents can stem from templates? What should be your answer? A. Risk policies B. Organizational policies C. Scope management plans D. Historical information C. Scope management plans can be based on templates. For the record, so can the WBS and project scope change control forms. A, B, and D are incorrect because these documents do not stem from templates. You are the project manager for a technical project. The project product is the complete installation of a new operating system on 4500 workstations. You have, in your project cost and time estimates, told the customer that the estimates provided will be accurate if the workstations meet the hardware requirements of the new operating system. This is an example of which of the following? A. Risk B. Assumption C. Constraint D. Order of magnitude B. This is an example of an assumption, since the workstations must meet the hardware requirements. A and C are incorrect because the scenario did not describe a risk or constraint. D is incorrect because the order of magnitude refers to the level of confidence in an estimate. You are the project manager for the NBG Project. The project is to develop new software that is supported on mobile devices. The project customer has defined a maximum budget, performance metrics, and other quality metrics for the project deliverable to be acceptable. One requirement of the project is that it must be completed within six months. This is an example of which of the following? A. Schedule B. Assumption C. Constraint D. Planning process C. A project that must be completed by a deadline is dealing with time constraints. A is incorrect because the condition does not offer a schedule, but includes a “must finish no later than” constraint. B is incorrect because the condition is not an assumption. D is incorrect because this is not a planning process. As a PMP candidate you must be familiar with the project management terms. Sometimes the terms seem confusing, such as project scope statement, scope baseline, or even the scope control process. Which of the following best describes the project scope statement? A. The description of the project deliverables B. The authorizing document that allows the project manager to move forward with the project and to assign resources to the tasks C. A document that defines all of the required work—and only the required work—to create the project’s deliverables D. The process of planning and executing all of the required work in order to deliver the project to the customer C. A project scope statement focuses on completing all of the required work, and only the required work, to create the project’s deliverables. A is a product description, not a scope. B is incorrect because this choice describes the charter. D is incorrect because it does not define the project scope as completely as choice C. During the planning phase of your project, your project team has discovered another method to complete a portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project team, but it may cost more for the customer. This is an example of which of the following? A. Risk assessment B. Alternative identification C. Alternative selection D. Product analysis B. Alternative identification is a planning process to find alternatives to completing the project scope. A is incorrect because this is not a risk assessment activity. C is incorrect because the team has identified the alternative but has not selected it. D is incorrect because this is not product analysis. You are the project manager of a large software development project. Hundreds of requirements need to be documented, annotated, and communicated to the project stakeholders. Management would also like you to report when the requirements should be created and when they’re actually created by the project team. What document can help you monitor all of the characteristics of each requirement? A. Project management plan B. Configuration management plan C. Requirements traceability matrix D. Project communications management plan C. The requirements traceability matrix can help the project manager track and monitor all of the characteristics of each project requirement. It helps to communicate the requirement’s status and completion, and it records any notes or comments about each requirement. A, the project management plan, does define how all of the components of the project will be planned, executed, and monitored, but it does not answer the question as completely as choice C. B, the configuration management plan, defines how changes to the product scope will be allowed, controlled, and documented. D, the project communications management plan, defines who needs what information, when the information is needed, and the expected modality. You are the project manager for the JHN Project. Mike, a project manager you are mentoring, does not know which plan he should reference for guarding the project scope. Which plan does Mike need? A. The scope management plan B. The scope change control system C. The scope validation D. The scope charter A. The scope management plan provides details about how the project scope may be changed. B is not a valid choice because it refers to the scope change control system, not the plan to guard the scope from changes. C is incorrect because scope validation is the process of formally accepting the product. D is incorrect because the charter does not define how changes to the project may happen. You are the project manager for the JKL Project. This project has more than 45 key stakeholders and will span the globe when implemented. Management has deemed that the project’s completion should not cost more than $34 million. This is an example of which of the following? A. Internationalization B. Budget constraint C. Management constraint D. Hard logic B. This is an example of a budget constraint. The budget must not exceed $34 million. In addition, the metric for the values to be in U.S. dollars can affect the budget if most of the product is to be purchased in a foreign country. A is incorrect because this does not define a constraint. Internationalization focuses on time zones, languages, cultural differences, and so on. C is incorrect because this is not an adequate answer; a management constraint describes a management decision such as resources, risk policies, or control over the project budget. D is also incorrect because hard logic describes the most logical or required method for events or conditions to happen. You are the project manager for your organization. Your project is to construct a new house for a client. You and the client have agreed to meet at the end of each phase of the project to walk through the house as it’s being built to confirm the quality and accuracy of the build. You need to ensure the customer formally accepts the deliverables of each project phase. This process is known as _______________. A. Earned value management B. Scope validation C. Quality control D. Quality assurance C. Scope validation results in one thing: formal acceptance. A is incorrect because WBS templates come from past projects or the PMO. B is incorrect because rework does not come from validation. D is incorrect because SOW (statement of work) acceptance is not the best choice. It’s important to know what each project management process creates. For example, which of the following is an output of scope validation? A. WBS template B. Rework C. Formal acceptance D. SOW acceptance C. Scope validation results in one thing: formal acceptance. A is incorrect because WBS templates come from past projects or the PMO. B is incorrect because rework does not come from validation. D is incorrect because SOW (statement of work) acceptance is not the best choice. Where can the project manager find work package information such as the code of an account identifier, a statement of work, information on the responsible organization, quality requirements, and information on the required resources? A. Project plan B. WBS C. WBS dictionary D. Project management plan C. The WBS dictionary provides all of this information—along with information on milestones and contract information—and then cross-references each work package with related work package information. A, the project plan, is technically not an accurate term for the project management plan. This also does not define the question as accurately as the WBS dictionary. B, the WBS, is incorrect because the WBS does not define the work to the extent the WBS dictionary does. D is incorrect because the project management plan communicates the project intent. The subsidiary plans, which are part of the project management plan, communicate information on specific knowledge areas. You are a project manager for a large manufacturer. Your current project is to create a new manufacturing assembly line that will allow your organization to create its products with less downtime and faster turnaround time for its clients. A stakeholder has presented a change request for your project, which will likely increase the cost and time needed to complete the project. All of the following components are not part of the change control system except for which one? A. Adding more team members to the project to get the project work done faster B. Outsourcing portions of the project execution to transfer risk C. Tracking systems for the proposed change D. Documenting the project and how the manufacturing assembly should work C. The only answer that describes a component of the change control system is the tracking system for the proposed change. A is incorrect because this describes crashing and is not part of the change control system. B is incorrect because transference is not a value-added change and is not part of the change control system. D is incorrect because this process should be part of the product description already included in the project plan and is not part of the change control system A project team member has, on his own initiative, added extra vents to an attic to increase air circulation. The project plan did not call for these extra vents, but the team member decided they were needed based on the geographic location of the house. The project team’s experts concur with this decision. This is an example of which of the following? A. Cost control B. Ineffective change control C. Self-led teams D. Value-added change B. The project team member did not follow the change management plan’s method of incorporating changes into the scope. A is incorrect because this scenario describes change control, although the decision may lead to additional expenses. C is incorrect because self-led teams are not described in this scenario. D is also incorrect because the added vents do not apparently reduce cost in this example. Which of the following is an output of scope control? A. Workarounds B. Recommended corrective action C. Transference D. Risk assessment B. Recommended corrective actions are outputs of change control. Poor performance leads to corrective actions to bring the project back in alignment with the project plan. Recall that a corrective action is a change request. A is incorrect because a workaround is a reaction to an identified risk or issue. C and D are also incorrect because transference is the process of transferring the risk, and risk assessment is the process of identifying and analyzing risk within the project or phase. You are the project manager for the JHG Project. Your project is to create a new product for your industry. You have recently learned your competitor is also working on a similar project, but their offering will include a computer-aided program and web-based tools, which your project does not offer. You have implemented a change request to update your project. This is an example of which of the following? A. A change due to an error or omission in the initiation phase B. A change due to an external event C. A change due to an error or omission in the planning phase D. A change due to a legal issue B. The change is requested to remain competitive with the competition—an external event. Change is inevitable and requires a change control process to manage. A, C, and D are all incorrect choices based on the conditions of the change request. You are the project manager for a pharmaceutical company. A new government regulation will change your project scope. For the project to move forward and be in accordance with the new regulation, what should be your next action? A. Prepare a new baseline to reflect the government changes. B. Notify management. C. Present the change to the CCB. D. Create a feasibility study. C. Presenting the change to the change control board is the best choice. A is incorrect because the change has not been approved—the project could be stopped based on the required change. B is incorrect, though tempting. It is incorrect for two primary reasons: The project manager should never contact management with a problem, and no solution is offered for the problem. It is also incorrect because C more fully answers the question, since management is likely part of the group of appropriate stakeholders. D is incorrect because it is not appropriate for the conditions surrounding the change. Your project is to document all of the computer system in your company. Your project team was required to document the operating systems, the hardware, the network configuration, and the software on each computer. You have finished the project scope according to plan. For the customer to accept the project, what must happen next? A. Nothing. The plan is complete, so the project is complete. B. Scope validation should be conducted. C. Lessons learned should be finalized. D. Proof-of-concept should be implemented. B. Scope validation concerns itself with the formal acceptance of the product. A is incorrect because acceptance must happen for closure. C is incorrect—lessons learned do not close out the project. D is incorrect because it is not relevant to the issue. You are the project manager for an airplane manufacturer. Your project concerns the development of lighter, stronger material for commercial jets. As the project moves toward completion, different material composition is considered for the deliverable. This is an example of which of the following? A. Program management B. Alternatives identification C. Quality assurance D. Regulatory guidelin B. Alternatives identification is the technique to consider different approaches, materials, and solutions for the project work. A is incorrect—program management is not relevant. C is incorrect because QA describes the quality assessment system of an organization. D is incorrect because regulatory guidelines do not refine the project scope. You are the project manager of a large project. Your project sponsor and management have approved your outsourcing portions of the project plan. The _______________ must document project scope management decisions. A. Project sponsor B. Organization’s management C. Vendor(s) D. Project management team D. The responsibility to document project scope management decisions rests with the project management team. A, B, and C are all incorrect because these stakeholders do not have the responsibility of the project manager in this scenario. A project team member has asked you what project scope management is. Which of the following is a characteristic of project scope management? A. It defines the baseline for project acceptance. B. It defines the requirements for each project within the organization. C. It defines the processes to ensure that the project includes all the work required—and only the work required—to complete the project successfully. D. It defines the functional managers assigned to the project. C. Project scope management defines the processes to ensure that the project includes all the work required—and only the work required—to complete the project successfully. A is incorrect because the scope statement provides information on the project product acceptance. B is incorrect because a scope statement does not address all projects within an organization. D is also incorrect because functional managers are not addressed in the scope statement. One of the stakeholders of the project you are managing asks why you consider the scope statement so important in your project management methodology. You answer her question with which of the following? A. It is mandatory to consult the plan before authorizing any change. B. Project managers must document any changes before approving or declining them. C. The project scope statement serves as a reference for all change requests to determine if the change is in or out of scope. D. The project plan and EVM work together to assess the risk involved with proposed changes. C. The scope statement serves as a point of reference when considering whether change requests are in or out of scope. A is incorrect because it is too vague. B is incorrect because some changes may come orally and be declined immediately based on historical information or other factors. D is incorrect because EVM is not an issue in this scenario. The project scope statement is decomposed into the work breakdown structure. The WBS then becomes an important part of the project for planning, execution, and control. A WBS serves as an input to many of the project processes. Of the following, which is not true? A. WBS serves as an input to activity sequencing. B. WBS serves as an input to activity definition. C. WBS serves as an input to risk identification. D. WBS serves as an input to cost budgeting. A. The WBS does not directly serve as an input to activity sequencing. B, C, and D are incorrect choices because the WBS does serve as an input to these processes. Incidentally, the WBS is needed for developing the project management plan, defining the project activities, estimating the project costs, determining the project budget, identifying the project risks, performing qualitative risk analysis, and validating the project scope. You are the project manager of the WIFI Project. You would like to meet with a stakeholder for scope validation. Which of the following is typical of scope validation? A. Reviewing changes to the project scope with the stakeholders B. Reviewing the performance of the project deliverables C. Reviewing the performance of the project team to date D. Reviewing the EVM results of the project to date B. When it comes to scope validation, the customer is concerned with the performance of the product. A may seem correct, but the stakeholder should already know about the changes prior to scope validation. C and D are incorrect because these reviews are not relevant to scope validation. What is the role of management in project execution?managing the production of the required deliverables. planning and monitoring the project. adopting any delegation and use of project assurance roles within agreed reporting structures. preparing and maintaining project, stage and exception plans as required.
Which statement best describes the responsibility of the project manager?Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager: to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time. to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.
Which of the following best describes project management?Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle.
What is the role of project manager in each phase of project?Key Responsibilities of a Project Manager
In the broadest sense, project managers (PMs) are responsible for planning, organizing, and directing the completion of specific projects for an organization while ensuring these projects are on time, on budget, and within scope.
|
Which of the following BEST describes the role of the project manager during project executing
zusammenhängende Posts
Urheberrechte © © 2024 paraquee Inc.
