CCNA 2 v7 SRWE Final Exam Answers – Switching, Routing and Wireless Essentials 20211. Refer to the exhibit. What will router R1 do with a packet that has a destination IPv6 address of 2001:db8:cafe:5::1?forward the packet out GigabitEthernet0/0 Show
Explanation: The route ::/0 is the compressed form of the 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000/0 default route. The default route is used if a more specific route is not found in the routing table. 2. Refer to the exhibit. Currently router R1 uses an EIGRP route learned from Branch2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. Which floating static route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down?ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 100 Explanation: A floating static route needs to have an administrative distance that is greater than the administrative distance of the active route in the routing table. Router R1 is using an EIGRP route which has an administrative distance of 90 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. To be a backup route the floating static route must have an administrative distance greater than 90 and have a next hop address corresponding to the serial interface IP address of Branch2. 3. Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?Add an administrative distance of 254. Explanation: The static route on R1 has been incorrectly configured with the wrong destination network and mask. The correct destination network and mask is 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0. 4. Which option shows a correctly configured IPv4 default static route?ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0 Explanation: The static route ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is considered a default static route and will match all destination networks. 5. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route command can be entered on R1 to forward traffic to the LAN connected to R2?ipv6 route 2001:db8:12:10::/64 S0/0/0 6. What is a method to launch a VLAN hopping attack?introducing a rogue switch and enabling trunking* 7. A cybersecurity analyst is using the macof tool to evaluate configurations of switches deployed in the backbone network of an organization. Which type of LAN attack is the analyst targeting during this evaluation?VLAN hopping 8. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?The default gateway address is not provided in the pool. Explanation: 9. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured routers R1 and R2 as part of HSRP group 1. After the routers have been reloaded, a user on Host1 complained of lack of connectivity to the Internet The network administrator issued the show standby brief command on both routers to verify the HSRP operations. In addition, the administrator observed the ARP table on Host1. Which entry should be seen in the ARP table on Host1 in order to gain connectivity to the Internet?the virtual IP address and the virtual MAC address for the HSRP group 1* Explanation: Hosts will send an ARP request to the default gateway which is the virtual IP address. ARP replies from the HSRP
routers contain the virtual MAC address. The host ARP tables will contain a mapping of the virtual IP to the virtual MAC. 10. Match the forwarding characteristic to its type. (Not all options are used.)11. Which statement is correct about how a Layer 2 switch determines how to forward frames?Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.* Explanation: Cut-through frame forwarding reads up to only the first 22 bytes of a frame, which excludes the frame check sequence and thus invalid frames may be forwarded. In addition to broadcast frames, frames with a destination MAC address that is not in the CAM are also flooded out all active ports. Unicast frames are not always forwarded. Received frames with a destination MAC address that is associated with the switch port on which it is received are not forwarded because the destination exists on the network segment connected to that port. 12. Which statement describes a result after multiple Cisco LAN switches are interconnected?The broadcast domain expands to all switches.* Explanation: In Cisco LAN switches, the microsegmentation makes it possible for each port to represent a separate segment and thus each switch port represents a separate collision domain. This fact will not change when multiple switches are interconnected. However, LAN switches do not filter broadcast frames. A broadcast frame is flooded to all ports. Interconnected switches form one big broadcast domain. 13. Match the link state to the interface and protocol status. (Not all options are used.)14. Refer to the exhibit. How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?SW1 forwards the frame directly to SW2. SW2 floods the frame to all ports connected to SW2, excluding the port
through which the frame entered the switch. Explanation: When a switch powers on, the MAC address table is empty. The switch builds the MAC address table by examining the source MAC address of incoming frames. The switch forwards based on the destination MAC address found in the frame header. If a switch has no entries in the MAC address table or if the destination MAC address is not in the switch table, the switch will forward the frame out all ports except the port that brought the frame into the switch. 15. An administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.* Explanation: Standard range VLANs (1-1005) are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory. Erasing the startup configuration and reloading a switch does not automatically remove these VLANs. The vlan.dat file must be manually deleted from flash memory and then the switch must be reloaded. 16. Match the description to the correct VLAN type. (Not all options are used.)Explanation: A data VLAN is configured to carry user-generated traffic. A default VLAN is the VLAN where all switch ports belong after the initial boot up of a switch loading the default configuration. A native VLAN is assigned to an 802.1Q trunk port, and untagged traffic is placed on it. A management VLAN is any VLAN that is configured to access the management capabilities of a switch. An IP address and subnet mask are assigned to it, allowing the switch to be managed via HTTP, Telnet, SSH, or SNMP. 17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has connected two switches together using EtherChannel technology. If STP is running, what will be the end result?STP will block one of the redundant links.* Explanation: Cisco switches support two protocols for negotiating a channel between two switches: LACP and PAgP. PAgP is Cisco-proprietary. In the topology shown, the switches are connected to each other using redundant links. By default, STP is enabled on switch devices. STP will block redundant links to prevent loops. 18. What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?Configure an ACL and apply it to the VTY lines. 19. Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?WPA2 with AES* 20. After attaching four PCs to the switch ports, configuring the SSID and setting authentication properties for a small office network, a technician successfully tests the connectivity of all PCs that are connected to the switch and WLAN. A firewall is then configured on the device prior to connecting it to the Internet. What type of network device includes all of the described features?firewall appliance 21. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3 Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3 Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Explanation: As a packet traverses the network, the Layer 2 addresses will change at every hop as the packet is de-encapsulated and re-encapsulated, but the Layer 3 addresses will remain the same. 22. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route would an IT technician enter to create a backup route to the 172.16.1.0 network that is only used if the primary RIP learned route fails?ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 Explanation: A backup static route is called a floating static route. A floating static route has an administrative distance greater than the administrative distance of another static route or dynamic route. 23. Refer to the exhibit. In addition to static routes directing traffic to networks 10.10.0.0/16 and 10.20.0.0/16, Router HQ is also configured with the following command:ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1/1 What is the purpose of this command?Packets that are received from the Internet will be forwarded to one of the LANs connected
to R1 or R2. 24. What protocol or technology disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops?VTP 25. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN 26. Which two VTP modes allow for the creation, modification, and deletion of VLANs on the local switch? (Choose two.)client 27. Which three steps should be taken before moving a Cisco switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)Configure the switch with the name of the new management
domain.* Explanation: When adding a new switch to a VTP domain, it is critical to configure the switch with a new domain name, the correct VTP mode, VTP version number, and password. A switch with a higher revision number can propagate invalid VLANs and erase valid VLANs thus preventing connectivity for multiple devices on the valid VLANs. 28. A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?Link types can only be configured on
access ports configured with a single VLAN. Explanation: When Rapid PVST+ is being implemented, link types are automatically determined but can be specified manually. Link types can be either point-to-point, shared, or edge. 29. Refer to the exhibit. All the displayed switches are Cisco 2960 switches with the same default priority and operating at the same bandwidth. Which three ports will be STP designated ports? (Choose three.)fa0/9 30. How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?It will not perform recursive
lookups. 31. Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)They improve network
security.* Explanation: Static routes are manually configured on a router. Static routes are not automatically updated and must be manually reconfigured if the network topology changes. Thus static routing improves network security because it does not make route updates among neighboring routers. Static routes also improve resource efficiency by using less bandwidth, and no CPU cycles are used to calculate and communicate routes. 32. Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?S 10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2* Explanation: The C in a routing table indicates an interface that is up and has an IP address assigned. The S in a routing table signifies that a route was installed using the ip route command. Two of the routing table entries shown are static routes to a specific destination (the 192.168.2.0 network). The entry that has the S denoting a static route and [1/0] was configured using the next-hop address. The other entry (S 192.168.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0) is a static route configured using the exit interface. The entry with the 0.0.0.0 route is a default static route which is used to send packets to any destination network that is not specifically listed in the routing table. 33. What is the effect of entering the spanning-tree portfast configuration command on a switch?It disables an unused port. 34. What is the IPv6 prefix that is used for link-local addresses?FF01::/8 35. Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the
core and distribution layers.* 36. Successful inter-VLAN routing has been operating on a network with multiple VLANs across multiple switches for some time. When an inter-switch trunk link fails and Spanning Tree Protocol brings up a backup trunk link, it is reported that hosts on two VLANs can access some, but not all the network resources that could be accessed previously. Hosts on all other VLANS do not have this problem. What is the most likely cause of this problem?The protected edge port function on the backup trunk interfaces has been disabled.* 37. Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?interface port-channel 2 38. What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a multicast destination MAC address?The switch will forward the frame out all ports except the incoming port. 39. A junior technician was adding a route to a LAN router. A traceroute to a device on the new network revealed a wrong path and unreachable status. What should be done or checked?Verify that there is not a default route in any of the edge router routing tables. 40. Select the three PAgP channel establishment modes. (Choose three.)Auto* 41. A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?Remove the route using the no ip route command.* 42. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the configuration shown on R1?R1 is configured as a DHCPv4 relay agent.* 43.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has added a new subnet to the network and needs hosts on that subnet to receive IPv4 addresses from the DHCPv4 server.What two commands will allow hosts on the new subnet to receive addresses from the DHCP4 server? (Choose two.)R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.1.0.254 44. Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.* Explanation: The ip helper-address command has to be applied on interface Gi0/0. This command must be present on the interface of the LAN that contains the DHCPv4 client PC1 and must be directed to the correct DHCPv4 server. 45. What two default wireless router settings can affect network security? (Choose two.)The SSID is broadcast.* Explanation: Default settings on wireless routers often include broadcasting the SSID and using a well-known administrative password. Both of these pose a security risk to wireless networks. WEP encryption and MAC address filtering are not set by default. The automatic selection of the wireless channel poses no security risks. 46. What is the common term given to SNMP log messages that are generated by network devices and sent to the SNMP server?Traps* 47. A network administrator is adding a new WLAN on a Cisco 3500 series WLC. Which tab should the administrator use to create a new VLAN interface to be used for the new WLAN?WIRELESS 48. A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator change the default DHCP IPv4 addresses on an AP?to restrict access to the WLAN by authorized, authenticated users only* 49. Which two functions are performed by a WLC when using split media access control (MAC)? (Choose two.)packet acknowledgments and retransmissions 50. On what switch ports should BPDU guard be enabled to enhance STP stability?all PortFast-enabled ports* 51. Which network attack is mitigated by enabling BPDU guard?rogue switches on a network* Explanation: There are several recommended STP stability mechanisms to help mitigate STP manipulation attacks: 52. Why is DHCP snooping required when using the Dynamic ARP Inspection feature?It relies on the settings of trusted and untrusted ports set by DHCP snooping. Explanation: DAI relies on DHCP snooping. DHCP snooping listens to DHCP message exchanges and builds a bindings database of valid tuples (MAC address, IP address, VLAN interface). 53. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The 192.168.0.36 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?Change the administrative distance to 120.* Explanation: The problem with the current floating static route is that the administrative distance is set too low. The administrative distance will need to be higher than that of OSPF, which is 110, so that the router will only use the OSPF link when it is up. 54. Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric to forward a data packet with the IPv6 destination address 2001:DB8:ACAD:E:240:BFF:FED4:9DD2?90 Explanation: The IPv6 destination address 2001:DB8:ACAD:E:240:BFF:FED4:9DD2 belongs to the network of 2001:DB8:ACAD:E::/64. In the routing table, the route to forward the packet has Serial 0/0/1 as an exit interface and 2682112 as the cost. 55. A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)IP address* Explanation: To enable the remote management access, the Cisco switch must be configured with an IP address and a default gateway. In addition, vty lines must configured to enable either Telnet or SSH connections. A loopback address, default VLAN, and VTP domain configurations are not necessary for the purpose of remote switch management. 56. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?ipv6 nd other-config-flag* Explanation: The interface command ipv6 nd other-config-flag allows RA messages to be sent on this interface, indicating that additional information is available from a stateless DHCPv6 server. 57. Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1 (config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 (config)# interface vlan 1 (config)# interface fastethernet0/4 (config)# ip routing* 58. A technician is troubleshooting a slow WLAN and decides to use the split-the-traffic approach. Which two parameters would have to be configured to do this? (Choose two.)Configure the 5 GHz band for streaming multimedia and time sensitive traffic.* 59. A company has just switched to a new ISP. The ISP has completed and checked the connection from its site to the company. However, employees at the company are not able to access the internet. What should be done or checked?Verify that the static route to the server is present in the routing table. 60. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?the destination MAC address and the incoming port Explanation: To maintain the MAC address table, the switch uses the source MAC address of the incoming packets and the port that the packets enter. The destination address is used to select the outgoing port. 61. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical link?PAgP* 62. Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?floating static route* Explanation: There are four basic types of static routes. Floating static routes are backup routes that are placed into the routing table if a primary route is lost. A summary static route aggregates several routes into one, reducing the of the routing table. Standard static routes are manually entered routes into the routing table. Default static routes create a gateway of last resort. 63. What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a unicast destination MAC address appearing in the MAC address table?The switch updates the refresh timer for the
entry. 64. The exhibit shows two PCs called PC A and PC B, two routes called R1 and R2, and two switches. PC A has the address 172.16.1.1/24 and is connected to a switch and into an interface on R1 that has the IP address 172.16.1.254. PC B has the address 172.16.2.1/24 and is connected to a switch that is connected to another interface on R1 with the IP address 172.16.2.254. The serial interface on R1 has the address 172.16.3.1 and is connected to the serial interface on R2 that has the address 172.16.3.2/24. R2 is connected to the internet cloud. Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1 Explanation: The correct syntax is: 65. What protocol or technology allows data to transmit over redundant switch links?EtherChannel 66. Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)host B Explanation: ARP requests are sent out as broadcasts. That means the ARP request is sent only throughout a specific VLAN. VLAN 1 hosts will only hear ARP requests from hosts on VLAN 1. VLAN 2 hosts will only hear ARP requests from hosts on VLAN 2. 67. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1. 68. What is the effect of entering the shutdown configuration command on a switch?It enables BPDU guard on a specific port. 69. What would be the primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack?so that the switch stops forwarding traffic 70. During the AAA process, when will authorization be implemented?Immediately after successful authentication against an AAA data source* Explanation: A. AAA authorization is implemented immediately after the user is authenticated against a specific AAA data source. 71. A company security policy requires that all MAC addressing be dynamically learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on each switch. Which port security configuration will accomplish this?auto secure MAC addresses Explanation: With sticky secure MAC addressing, the MAC addresses can be either dynamically learned or manually configured and then stored in the address table and added to the running configuration file. In contrast, dynamic secure MAC addressing provides for dynamically learned MAC addressing that is stored only in the address table. 72. Which three Wi-Fi standards operate in the 2.4GHz range of frequencies? (Choose three.)802.11a 73. To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)The root bridge BID.* 74. Refer to the exhibit. Which trunk link will not forward any traffic after the root bridge election process is complete?Trunk1 75. Which method of IPv6 prefix assignment relies on the prefix contained in RA messages?EUI-64 76. Which two protocols are used to provide server-based AAA authentication? (Choose two.)802.1x 77. A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator disable the broadcast feature for the SSID?to eliminate outsiders scanning for available SSIDs in the area* 78. Which mitigation technique would prevent rogue servers from providing false IP configuration parameters to clients?implementing port security Explanation: Like Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI), IP Source Guard (IPSG) needs to determine the validity of MAC-address-to-IP-address bindings. To do this IPSG uses the bindings database built by DHCP snooping. 79. A network administrator configures the port security feature on a switch. The security policy specifies that each access port should allow up to two MAC addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the syslog server. Which security violation mode should be configured for each access port?shutdown 80. What protocol or technology defines a group of routers, one of them defined as active and another one as standby?EtherChannel 81. Refer to the exhibit. After attempting to enter the configuration that is shown in router RTA, an administrator receives an error and users on VLAN 20 report that they are unable to reach users on VLAN 30. What is causing the problem?There is no address on Fa0/0 to use as a default gateway. 82. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable* 83. A technician is configuring a router for a small company with multiple WLANs and doesn’t need the complexity of a dynamic routing protocol. What should be done or checked?Verify that there is not a default route in any of the edge router routing tables. 84. A company is deploying a wireless network in the distribution facility in a Boston suburb. The warehouse is quite large and it requires multiple access points to be used. Because some of the company devices still operate at 2.4GHz, the network administrator decides to deploy the 802.11g standard. Which channel assignments on the multiple access points will make sure that the wireless channels are not overlapping?channels 1, 5, and 9 85. A network administrator of a small advertising company is configuring WLAN security by using the WPA2 PSK method. Which credential do office users need in order to connect their laptops to the WLAN? the company username and password through Active Directory servicea key that matches the key
on the AP 86. Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?alternate, designated, root, root* Explanation: Because S1 is the root bridge, B is a designated port, and C and D root ports. RSTP supports a new port type, alternate port in discarding state, that can be port A in this scenario. 87. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route would an IT technician enter to create a backup route to the 172.16.1.0 network that is only used if the primary RIP learned route fails?ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 Explanation: A backup static route is called a floating static route. A floating static route has an administrative distance greater than the administrative distance of another static route or dynamic route. 88. What mitigation plan is best for thwarting a DoS attack that is creating a MAC address table overflow?Disable DTP. 89. A network engineer is troubleshooting a newly deployed wireless network that is using the latest 802.11 standards. When users access high bandwidth services such as streaming video, the wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance the network engineer decides to configure a 5 Ghz frequency band SSID and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why might this solution improve the wireless network performance for that type of service?Requiring the users to switch to the 5 GHz band for streaming media is inconvenient and will result in fewer users accessing these services. Explanation: Wireless range is determined by the access point antenna and output power, not the frequency band that is used. In this scenario it is stated that all users have wireless NICs that comply with the latest standard, and so all can access the 5 GHz band. Although some users may find it inconvenient to switch to the 5 Ghz band to access streaming services, it is the greater number of channels, not just fewer users, that will improve network performance. 90. Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?broadcast DHCPACK Explanation: When a DHCP client receives DHCPOFFER messages, it will send a broadcast DHCPREQUEST message for two purposes. First, it indicates to the offering DHCP server that it would like to accept the offer and bind the IP address. Second, it notifies any other responding DHCP servers that their offers are declined. 91. Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?MAC address of the virtual router* Explanation: The IP address of the virtual router acts as the default gateway for all the workstations. Therefore, the MAC address that is returned by the Address Resolution Protocol to the workstation will be the MAC address of the virtual router. 92. After a host has generated an IPv6 address by using the DHCPv6 or SLAAC process, how does the host verify that the address is unique and therefore usable?The host sends an ICMPv6 echo
request message to the DHCPv6 or SLAAC-learned address and if no reply is returned, the address is considered unique. Explanation: Before a host can actually configure and use an IPv6 address learned through SLAAC or DHCP, the host must verify that no other host is already using that address. To verify that the address is indeed unique, the host sends an ICMPv6 neighbor solicitation to the address. If no neighbor advertisement is returned, the host considers the address to be unique and configures it on the interface. 93. Match the purpose with its DHCP message type. (Not all options are used.)94. Which protocol adds security to remote connections?FTP 95. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PC2 cannot communicate with PC1. Based on the output, what is the possible cause of the problem?Gi0/0 is not configured as
a trunk port. 96. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?It identifies the subinterface. 97. Match each DHCP message type with its description. (Not all options are used.)Explanation: Place the options
in the following order: 98. What network attack seeks to create a DoS for clients by preventing them from being able to obtain a DHCP lease?IP address spoofing Explanation: DCHP starvation attacks are launched by an attacker with the intent to create a DoS for DHCP clients. To accomplish this goal, the attacker uses a tool that sends many DHCPDISCOVER messages in order to lease the entire pool of available IP addresses, thus denying them to legitimate hosts. 99. Refer to the exhibit. If the IP addresses of the default gateway router and the DNS server are correct, what is the configuration problem?The DNS server and the default gateway router should be in the same subnet. Explanation: In this configuration, the excluded address list should include the address that is assigned to the default gateway router. So the command should be ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.10.1 192.168.10.9. 100. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has added a new subnet to the network and needs hosts on that subnet to receive IPv4 addresses from the DHCPv4 server. What two commands will allow hosts on the new subnet to receive addresses from the DHCP4 server? (Choose two.)R1(config-if)# ip
helper-address 10.2.0.250* Explanation: You need the router interface that is connected to the new subnet and the dhcp server address. 101. What protocol or technology uses source IP to destination IP as a load-balancing mechanism?VTP 102. What protocol should be disabled to help mitigate VLAN attacks?CDP 103. What protocol or technology requires switches to be in server mode or client mode?EtherChannel 104. What are two reasons a network administrator would segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)to create fewer collision domains Explanation: A switch has the ability of creating temporary point-to-point connections between the directly-attached transmitting and receiving network devices. The two devices have full-bandwidth full-duplex connectivity during the transmission. 105. What command will enable a router to begin sending messages that allow it to configure a link-local address without using an IPv6 DHCP server?a static route Explanation: To enable IPv6 on a router you must use the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command or use the ipv6 enable interface configuration command. This is equivalent to entering ip routing to enable IPv4 routing on a router when it has been turned off. Keep in mind that IPv4 is enabled on a router by default. IPv6 is not enabled by default. 106. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick model to configure a switch and a router for inter-VLAN routing. What configuration should be made on the switch port that connects to the router?Configure it as a trunk port and allow only untagged traffic. Explanation: The port on the switch that connects to the router interface should be configured as a trunk port. Once it becomes a trunk port, it does not belong to any particular VLAN and will forward traffic from various VLANs. 107. What are three techniques for mitigating VLAN attacks? (Choose three.)Use private VLANs. Explanation: Mitigating a VLAN attack can be done by disabling Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP), manually setting ports to trunking mode, and by setting the native VLAN of trunk links to VLANs not in use. 108. Match the DHCP message types to the order of the DHCPv4 process. (Not all options are used.)109. In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?to determine if remote access is enabled Explanation: The show interfaces command is useful to detect media errors, to see if packets are being sent and received, and to determine if any runts, giants, CRCs, interface resets, or other errors have occurred. Problems with reachability to a remote network would likely be caused by a misconfigured default gateway or other routing issue, not a switch issue. The show mac address-table command shows the MAC address of a directly attached device. 110. What is a drawback of the local database method of securing device access that can be solved by using AAA with centralized servers?There is no ability to provide accountability. Explanation: The local database method of securing device access utilizes usernames and passwords that are configured locally on the router. This allows administrators to keep track of who logged in to the device and when. The passwords can also be encrypted in the configuration. However, the account information must be configured on each device where that account should have access, making this solution very difficult to scale. 111. What action does a DHCPv4 client take if it receives more than one DHCPOFFER from multiple DHCP servers?It sends a DHCPREQUEST that identifies which lease offer the client is accepting.* 112. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring the port security feature on switch SWC. The administrator issued the command show port-security interface fa 0/2 to verify the configuration. What can be concluded from the output that is shown? (Choose three.)Three security violations have been detected on this interface. 113. What method of wireless authentication is dependent on a RADIUS authentication server?WEP 114. A network administrator has found a user sending a double-tagged 802.1Q frame to a switch. What is the best solution to prevent this type of attack?The native VLAN number used on any trunk should be one of the active data VLANs. 115. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output? (Choose two.)The EtherChannel is down.* 116. Match the step number to the sequence of stages that occur during the HSRP failover process. (Not all options are used.)117. On a Cisco 3504 WLC Summary page ( Advanced > Summary ), which tab allows a network administrator to configure a particular WLAN with a WPA2 policy?WLANs* 118. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring IPv6 routing on the network. Which command issued on router HQ will configure a default route to the Internet to forward packets to an IPv6 destination network that is not listed in the routing table?ipv6 route ::/0
serial 0/0/0 119. Users are complaining of sporadic access to the internet every afternoon. What should be done or checked?Create static routes to all internal networks and a default route to the internet.* 120. What action takes place when the source MAC address of a frame entering a switch appears in the MAC address table associated with a different port?The switch purges the entire MAC address table. 121. A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator use a WLAN controller?to centralize management of multiple WLANs 122. A new Layer 3 switch is connected to a router and is being configured for interVLAN routing. What are three of the five steps required for the configuration? (Choose three.)enabling IP routing* 123. Which three statements accurately describe duplex and speed settings on Cisco 2960 switches? (Choose three.)An autonegotiation failure can result in connectivity issues.* 124. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures R1 for inter-VLAN routing between VLAN 10 and VLAN 20. However, the devices in VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 cannot communicate. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, what is a possible cause for the problem?A. The
port Gi0/0 should be configured as trunk port. 125. A network administrator uses the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default global configuration command to enable BPDU guard on a switch. However, BPDU guard is not activated on all access ports. What is the cause of the issue?BPDU guard needs to be activated in the interface configuration command mode. 126. Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)MSTP 127. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the router R1 for IPv6 address assignment. Based on the partial configuration, which IPv6 global unicast address assignment scheme does the administrator intend to implement?Stateful* 128. A WLAN engineer deploys a WLC and five wireless APs using the CAPWAP protocol with the DTLS feature to secure the control plane of the network devices. While testing the wireless network, the WLAN engineer notices that data traffic is being exchanged between the WLC and the APs in plain-text and is not being encrypted. What is the most likely reason for this?DTLS only provides data security through authentication and does not provide encryption for data moving between a wireless LAN controller (WLC) and
an access point (AP). Explanation: DTLS is a protocol which
provides security between the AP and the WLC. It allows them to communicate using encryption and prevents eavesdropping or tampering. 129. A new switch is to be added to an existing network in a remote office. The network administrator does not want the technicians in the remote office to be able to add new VLANs to the switch, but the switch should receive VLAN updates from the VTP domain. Which two steps must be performed to configure VTP on the new switch to meet these conditions? (Choose two.)Configure the new switch as a VTP client.* 130. Refer to the exhibit. Consider that the main power has just been restored. PC3 issues a broadcast IPv4 DHCP request. To which port will SW1 forward this request?to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 only* 131. What action takes place when the source MAC address of a frame entering a switch is not in the MAC address table?The switch adds a MAC address table entry for the destination MAC address and the egress port. 132. Employees are unable to connect to servers on one of the internal networks. What should be done or checked?Use the “show ip interface brief” command to see if an interface is down.* 133. What is the effect of entering the ip dhcp snooping configuration command on a switch?It enables DHCP snooping globally on a switch.* 134. An administrator notices that large numbers of packets are being dropped on one of the branch routers. What should be done or checked?Create static routes to all internal networks and a default route to the internet. 135. What are two switch characteristics that could help alleviate network congestion? (Choose two.)fast internal switching 136. What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?The number of broadcast domains is increased. Explanation: When two or more switches are connected together, the size of the broadcast domain is increased and so is the number of collision domains. The number of broadcast domains is increased only when routers are added. 137. An administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?These VLANs are default VLANs that cannot be removed. Explanation: 138. Branch users were able to access a site in the morning but have had no connectivity with the site since lunch time. What should be done or checked?Verify that the static route to the server is present in the routing table. 139. What is the effect of entering the switchport port-security configuration command on a switch?It dynamically learns the L2 address and copies it to the running configuration. 140. A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator use multiple lightweight APs?to centralize management of multiple WLANs 141. A new Layer 3 switch is connected to a router and is being configured for interVLAN routing. What are three of the five steps required for the configuration? (Choose three.)assigning ports to VLANs* 142. A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator use RADIUS servers on the network?to centralize management of multiple WLANs 143. What is the effect of entering the switchport mode access configuration command on a switch?It enables BPDU guard on a specific port. 144. A network administrator has configured a router for stateless DHCPv6 operation. However, users report that workstations are not receiving DNS server information. Which two router configuration lines should be verified to ensure that stateless DHCPv6 service is properly configured? (Choose two.)The domain-name line is included in
the ipv6 dhcp pool section. 145. A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator disable the broadcast feature for the SSID?to eliminate outsiders scanning for available SSIDs in the area* 146. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is attempting to install an IPv6 static route on router R1 to reach the network attached to router R2. After the static route command is entered, connectivity to the network is still failing. What error has been made in the static route configuration?The next hop address is incorrect. Explanation: In this example the interface in the static route is incorrect. The interface should be the exit interface on R1, which is s0/0/0. 147. What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a unicast destination MAC address that is not in the MAC address table?The switch updates the refresh timer for the entry. 148. A junior technician was adding a route to a LAN router. A traceroute to a device on the new network revealed a wrong path and unreachable status. What should be done or checked?Create a floating static route to that network. 149. What is the effect of entering the ip arp inspection vlan 10 configuration command on a switch?It specifies the maximum number of L2 addresses allowed on a port. 150. What protocol or technology manages trunk negotiations between switches?VTP 151. A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator apply WPA2 with AES to the WLAN?to reduce the risk of unauthorized APs being added to the network 152. Users on a LAN are unable to get to a company web server but are able to get elsewhere. What should be done or checked?Ensure that the old default route has been removed from the company edge routers. 153. What IPv6 prefix is designed for link-local communication?2001::/3 154. What is the effect of entering the ip dhcp snooping limit rate 6 configuration command on a switch?It displays the IP-to-MAC address associations for switch interfaces. 155. A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator change the default DHCP IPv4 addresses on an AP?to eliminate outsiders scanning for available SSIDs in the area* 156. What is the effect of entering the ip arp inspection validate src-mac configuration command on a switch?It checks the source L2 address in the Ethernet header against the sender L2 address in the ARP body.* 157. What protocol or technology is a Cisco proprietary protocol that is automatically enabled on 2960 switches?DTP* 158. What address and prefix length is used when configuring an IPv6 default static route?::/0* 159. What are two characteristics of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)When a packet arrives on a router interface, it is forwarded to the control plane where the CPU matches the destination address with a matching routing table entry. 160. Which term describes the role of a Cisco switch in the 802.1X port-based access control?agent 161. Which Cisco solution helps prevent ARP spoofing and ARP poisoning attacks?Dynamic ARP Inspection* 162. What is an advantage of PVST+?PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge. Explanation: PVST+ results in optimum load balancing. However, this is accomplished by manually configuring switches to be elected as root bridges for different VLANs on the network. The root bridges are not automatically selected. Furthermore, having spanning-tree instances for each VLAN actually consumes more bandwidth and it increases the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network. 163. What protocol or technology uses a standby router to assume packet-forwarding responsibility if the active router fails?EtherChannel What statement describes the result after interconnecting multiple Cisco LAN switches?Which statement describes a result after multiple Cisco LAN switches are interconnected? The broadcast domain expands to all switches.
Which statement describes a result after multiple Cisco LAN switches are interconnected frame collisions increase on the segments connecting the switches?Explanation: In Cisco LAN switches, the microsegmentation makes it possible for each port to represent a separate segment and thus each switch port represents a separate collision domain. This fact will not change when multiple switches are interconnected.
What criteria is used by a Cisco LAN switch to determine forward Ethernet frames?Cisco LAN switches forward Ethernet frames based on the destination MAC address of the frames.
What network design guideline satisfies user expectations for keeping the network always on?Resiliency: Satisfies user expectations for keeping the network always on. Flexibility: Allows intelligent traffic load sharing by using all network resources.
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